The solutions listed below are in two arms of a tube separated by a semipermeable membrane. The solution in the left arm is given first. In which case the osmotic flow proceeds from the right to the left arm? Group of answer choices

0.010 M NH3(aq) |

0.010 M NaCl(aq)

0.010 M NaCl(aq) |

0.010 M FeCl3(aq)

0.010 M NaCl(aq) |

0.010 M CH3COOH(aq)

0.010 M NaCl(aq) |

0.010 M CaCl2(aq)

0.010 M CaCl2(aq) |

0.010 M FeCl3(aq)

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

The correct answer is the couple: 0.010 M NaCl | 0.010 M CH₃COOH

Explanation:

A semipermeable membrane allows to pass through solvent molecules but not solute molecules. In this case, all solutions have the same molarity (M) but they do not have the same quantity of solute particles because some of them dissociate in two or more ions (van't Hoff factor i is higher than 1) . Osmotic flow proceeds always from the side with lower concentration of solute (with more solvent molecules) to the side with higher concentration of solute. For each pair of solution, we have to determine the number of particles of solute or the van't Hoff factor (i). If the right side has the lower concentration of solute (higher i), the osmotic flow will proceed from the right to the left.

0.010 M NH3(aq) |  0.010 M NaCl(aq): NH₃ is a nonelectrolyte (i=1) and NaCl has i= 2. Osmotic flow proceeds from left to the right.

0.010 M NaCl(aq) |  0.010 M FeCl3(aq): NaCl has i=2 and FeCl₃ has i=3 (it dissociates in Fe⁺ and 3 Cl⁻). Osmotic flow proceeds from left to the right.

0.010 M NaCl(aq) |  0.010 M CH3COOH(aq): NaCl has i=2 and CH₃COOH is a nonelectrolyte (i=1). The lower concentration is in the right side, so the osmotic flow proceeds from right to left.

0.010 M NaCl(aq) |  0.010 M CaCl2(aq): NaCl has i=2 and CaCl₂ has i=3 (it dissociates in Ca⁺ and 2 Cl⁻). The lower concentration is in the left side so the osmotic flow proceeds from left to right.

0.010 M CaCl2(aq) |  0.010 M FeCl3(aq): CaCl₂ has i=3 and FaCl₃ has i=4 (it dissociates in Fe⁺ and 3 Cl⁻), so the lower concentration is in the left side and osmotic flow proceeds from left to right.

Answer 2

In the given case, the osmotic flow proceeds from the right to the left arm - 0.010 M NaCl(aq) | 0.010 M CH3COOH(aq)

Osmotic flow

It is the spontaneous flow of molecules of the solvent through a semipermeable membrane. The flow would be for the zone of high concentration in order to achieve equal concentration on both sides.

Since we have to apply the pressure on the left arm of the tube to stop osmosis. It indicates that the solution in the left arm is hypertonic to the one in the right arm of the tube.

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Related Questions

An elephant had a long, powerful trunk. According to the ideas of Lamarck, how did the trait of long, powerful trunks develop develop in elephants

Answers

Answer:

D

Explanation:

Lamark believed in the inheritance of acquired characteristics. That is, that if an individual's body or organs changed in some way during the course of their life time (due to the environment or some other pressure), that these characteristics could be passed on to the next generation.

This was his theory of evolution. Therefore, if, slowly elephants started using their trunks to an advantage more, they would start to develop and grow. Lamark believed these acquired traits would be passed on to the next generation. We now know this not to be true, and random, selectively advantageous mutations in DNA are what cause evolution over time.

Micah has straight hair. If he is homozygous for the gene that determines straight hair, what is true of his parents?

Answers

Answer:

They have contributed same allele for straight hair.

Explanation:

There are two conditions homozygous and heterozygous. In homozygous conditions both the allele of a particular gene is same in an offspring which means the offspring got two same alleles from its parent for a particular gene and if an offspring is heterozygous for a gene that suggests that the parent has contributed two different alleles for that gene in the offspring.

So If Micah is homozygous for straight hair then it can be concluded that his parents have contributed two same alleles for straight hair genes.

Final answer:

If Micah is homozygous for the straight hair gene, both of his parents must have contributed an allele for straight hair. They could be homozygous or heterozygous for this trait.

Explanation:

If Micah is homozygous for the gene that determines straight hair, it means he has two of the same type of allele for that gene - in this case, the allele for straight hair. This indicates that both of his parents must have contributed an allele for straight hair. The simplest scenario is that both of his parents are also homozygous for the straight hair allele. However, it's also possible that one or both parents are heterozygous, possessing one straight hair allele and one potentially recessive curly hair allele. In this scenario, they would have each passed the straight hair allele to Micah.

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Cells of a normally rod-shaped bacterium (e.g., Bacillus subtilis) that have completely lost the ability to produce the MreB protein would mostly likely be Choose one: A. nonflagellated. B. stalked (like Caulobacter). C. coccoid-shaped. D. filamentous in form. E. unable to divide symmetrically.

Answers

Answer:

C. coccoid-shaped.

Explanation:

MreB protein serves as function as actin proteins do in the eukaryotic cells. MreB protein is involved in maintaining the cell shape. It is observed in many rod-shaped bacteria and archaea such as Bacillus subtilis. MreB polymerizes to form a spiral around the inside periphery of the cell and maintain the elongated shape of the cell. A bacterium that is not able to produce functional MreB protein cannot maintain the rod shape of its cell and is coccoid-shaped.

Early twentieth century Russia was in great turmoil as the Bolshevik Revolution ended 300 years of monarchical rule. Tsar Nicholas Romanov, his wife, Tsarina Alexandra, and their five children were placed under house arrest, but disappeared in the summer of 1918. Rumors abounded about their possible execution or escape from Russia.

Two years later, a young woman named Anna Anderson claimed that she was Anastasia, the youngest daughter of Tsar Nicholas II. There was much controversy surrounding Anna's claim. Some believed she was a fraud, others that she was indeed the lost Princess Anastasia. Anna remained steadfast in her claim until her death in 1984.

In 1991, the remains of nine skeletons, five male and four female, were exhumed from a shallow grave east of Moscow. Evidence from nuclear DNA showed that three of the young women were related and that one of the men and one of the women were their parents.

Further evidence from mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) showed that one of the women could be positively identified as Tsarina Alexandra and that one of the men was indeed Tsar Nicholas II. The other three women had mtDNA that matched that of the Tsarina's and were identified as three of the Tsar's children. Anastasia and her younger brother, Alexei, were not among those found in the grave. This led to further speculation about Anastasia's possible escape from Russia after her parents were killed.

In 2007, an additional grave was found near that exhumed in 1991. It contained the remains of a teenage girl and boy. These remains were mtDNA tested, as well as samples from Anna Anderson, uncovered from hospital storage long after her death.

Analysis of the mtDNA supported the hypothesis that Princess Anastasia had been killed with her family in 1918. Which of the following statements support this hypothesis? Select all that apply.

a. The mtDNA of Anna Anderson bore no resemblance to that of Tsarina Alexandra.

b. The mtDNA from the remains of the teenage girl matched that of Tsar Nicholas II.

c. Tsarina Alexandria's mtDNA was found to be a match to that of the teenage girl.

d. The mtDNA from Anna Anderson matched that of Tsarina Alexandra.

e. The mtDNA of the teenage girl and boy matched each other.

Answers

Answer:

a. The mtDNA of Anna Anderson bore no resemblance to that of Tsarina Alexandra

c. Tsarina Alexandria's mtDNA was found to be a match to that of the teenage girl.

Explanation:

Mitochondria contain their own DNA known as mtDNA, a strand which is inherited maternally. mtDNA can be used to find maternal ancestry and cannot be passed down by a paternal parent.

This information provides evidence given that the remains of the teenage girl had mtDNA that was identical to the mother, Tsarina Alexandra. It also gave evidence as to why Anna Anderson's claim of being Anastasia were false as the mtDNA of her and Tsarina Alexandra were not similar.

As to why the other answers cannot support the hypothesis, mtDNA is a maternally passed-down strand making the father, Tsar Nicholas Romanov, from having identical mtDNA to his children. On the other hand, if the teenage girl were to not have matching mtDNA to that of Tsuarina's mtDNA, this would disprove the theory of the girl being related to her.

While the teenage boy also had matching mtDNA with the girl, this only proves that the two were related to one another but not necessarily related to Tsarina unless the mtDNA of all three were proven identical.

The statements supporting the hypothesis concerning the killing of Princess Anastasia with her family in 1918 are stated below:

a. The mtDNA of Anna Anderson bore no resemblance to that of Tsarina Alexandra.  

c. Tsarina Alexandria's mtDNA was found to be a match to that of the teenage girl.  

e. The mtDNA of the teenage girl and boy matched each other.

Clearly, these statements negated Anna Anderson's claim of being the youngest daughter of Tsar Nicholas II.

The matching of Anastasia's mtDNA with Alexei's mtDNA in 2007 confirmed that Tsarina Alexandria was indeed their mother.  Recall that teenagers were not among the first nine skeletons exhumed in 1991.

Thus, the 2007 discovery unequivocally confirmed the hypothesis that Princess Anastasia was killed alongside her family in 1918 during the Russian revolution.

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Imagine that two unlinked autosomal genes with simple dominance code in goats for size, where T is tall and t is short, and for color, where R is red and r is tan. If a short, tan male goat mates with a tall, red female goat of an unknown genotype, what is the probability that they would produce short, tan offspring?

and....

One of a pea plants is homozygous recessive for both genes, resulting in the cross Yy Rr × yy rr. Calculate the percentage of green and round offspring.

Answers

Answer:

(A)  0.0625

(B)  25%

Explanation:

A

Given that ;

T is tall

t is short

R is red

r is tan.

If a short, tan male goat mates with a tall, red female goat of an unknown genotype;

Let's take it one after the other;

A short tan male goat = ttrr

The female goat is an unknown genotype, we will have to determine that but we were told that it is tall and red

∴ For tall it is T and red is R;

Definitely, the female genotype should be T_ R_;

the probability genotype of the female for each allele is either:

-   TT or Tt

-   RR or Rr

However,  from above;

the probability that the female will be Tt = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

the probability that the female will be Rr = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

the probability that the recessive allele 't' will be transferred to the offspring = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

the probability that the recessive allele 'r' will be transferred to the offspring = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

∴ the probability that they would produce short, tan offspring (ttrr) will be;

= [tex](\frac{1}{2})^{4}[/tex]

= [tex](\frac{1}{16})[/tex]

= 0.0625

(B)

One of a pea plants is homozygous recessive for both genes, resulting in the cross Yy Rr × yy rr. Calculate the percentage of green and round offspring.

For Color, Let;

Y = Yellow

y = Green

For shape, Let;

R = Round

r = wrinkled

If a cross occur between  Yy Rr × yy rr.   (i.e yellowround and green wrinkled)

the percentage of green and round offspring will be;

If Yy Rr self crossed; we have the following traits (YR, Yr, yR, yr)

yy rr will result to (yr, yr)

                   YR                    Yr                    yR                    yr

yr                 YyRr                 Yyrr                 yyRr                 Yyrr

yr                 YyRr                 Yyrr                 yyRr                 Yyrr

                   Yellow              Yellow            Green              Green

                   Round               Wrinkled        Round              Wrinkled

Therefore, the percentage of Green and Round offsprings from above is:

= [tex]\frac{2}{8}*100%[/tex]%

=[tex]\frac{1}{4}*100[/tex]%

= 25%

Which of the following is true of both starch and cellulose? a. They are both polymers of glucose. b. They are geometric isomers of each other. c. They can both be digested by humans. d. They are both used for energy storage in plants. e. They are both structural components of the plant cell wall.

Answers

Answer: Option A. They have both polymers of glucose

Explanation:

Starch and cellulose are both polymers of glucose. They have similar structure, Starch and cellulose are two similar polymers. They are both made from the same monomer, glucose, and have the same glucose-based repeat units. They consists of long chains of glucose molecules connected to (1-4)-glycosidic bonds. Glycosidic bonds are the standard way of attaching things to glucose. The (1-4) bit simply means that the glucose molecules in the chain are connected to each other to the 1st and 4th carbon in the glucose ring opposite each other.

The key similarity between glycogen and cellulose is that both are polymers of glucose.

Glycogen:

It is a polymer of glucose that is stored in animals as a storage of energy.

Cellulose:

It is also a polymer of glucose. It forms the cell wall of glucose.In plants starch work as the storage of energy.

Therefore, the key similarity between glycogen and cellulose is that both are polymers of glucose.

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Each of two parents has the genotype , which consists of the pair of alleles that determine , and each parent contributes one of those alleles to a child. Assume that if the child has at least one allele, that color will dominate and the child'swill be .

Answers

Answer:

Here is the full question:

Each of two parents has the genotype blond divided by red​, which consists of the pair of alleles that determine hair color​, and each parent contributes one of those alleles to a child. Assume that if the child has at least one blond ​allele, that color will dominate and the​ child's hair color will be blond.

a. List the different possible outcomes. Assume that these outcomes are equally likely.

b. What is the probability that a child of these parents will have the red divided by red ​genotype?

c. What is the probability that the child will have blond hair color​?

Explanation:

a.) Remember that the pair of allele determines the hair color. So, each of the two parents have the genotype red/blond. Therefore, the possible outcomes are blond/blond, blond/red, red/blond, and red/red.

b.) Since there are four outcomes, We calculate this as P(red/red) = (1/1)/(1/4) = 0.25

c.) There are three outcomes of the child having a blond hair which are blond/blond, blond/red, and red/blond. The probability is therefore P(outcome of blond/total outcome) = 3/4 =0.75

A dominant mutation in Drosophila called Delta causes changes in wing morphology in Delta/+ heterozygots. Homozygosity for this mutation (Delta / Delta) is lethal. In a population of 150 flies, it was determined that 60 bad normal wings and 90 had abnormal wings. a. What are the allele frequencies in this population? b. Using the allele frequencies calculated in part (a), how many total zygotes must be produced by this population in order for you to count 160 viable adults in the next generation? c. Given that there is random mating, no migration, and no mutation, and ignoring the effects of genetic drift, what are the expected numbers of the different genotypes in the next generation if 160 viable offspring of the population in part (a) are counted? d. Is this next generation at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? Why or why not?

Answers

I don't know I just want

In response to stress, cells in the adrenal cortex produce cortisol, a steroid hormone. Therefore, these cells would specifically exhibit large amounts of this organelle: Select one a. lysosomesb. rough ER C. smooth ER d. ribosomes e. vaults

Answers

Answer:C. smooth ER

Explanation:the endoplasmic reticulum is a membrane bound organelle found in the cytoplasm of the cell.it has a highly folded appearance.

Its function in the cell is the transportation of cellular products.

There are two types of endoplasmic reticulum;the rough endoplasmic reticulum and the smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

The rough endoplasmic reticulum have ribosomes attached to them ,giving them a granular appearance.the ribosomes synthesis proteins,which the rough endoplasmic reticulum transports outside or within the cell.

The smooth endoplasmic reticulum do not have ribosomes attached to it.its functions is to synthesis lipids.

It is also involved in the production of steroid hormones in the adrenal cortex and endocrine glands

Large amounts of this organelle C. Smooth ER Therefore , C. smooth ER is correct .

Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (Smooth ER):

The smooth ER is an organelle involved in various functions, one of which is the synthesis of lipids and steroids, including cortisol.

Steroid hormones like cortisol are lipids, and their synthesis primarily occurs in the smooth ER of cells.

In the adrenal cortex, cells are specialized to produce steroid hormones such as cortisol.

Cortisol is a crucial steroid hormone involved in the body's response to stress and helps regulate various physiological processes.

Cortisol Production:

The production of cortisol starts with cholesterol, which is transformed into cortisol through a series of enzymatic reactions, predominantly occurring in the smooth ER of the adrenal cortex cells.

The enzymes responsible for the synthesis of cortisol are predominantly located in the smooth ER membranes.

During stressful situations, the body signals the adrenal cortex to increase cortisol production.

The cells in the adrenal cortex respond by synthesizing more cortisol, leading to an increase in the smooth ER activity and volume to accommodate the higher demand for steroid hormone synthesis.

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A population is made up of individuals where 104 have the A1A1 genotype, 55 have the A1A2 genotype, and 37 have the A2A2 genotype. What is the allele frequency of A1? Answer to 2 decimal places.

Answers

Answer:

0.67

Explanation:

In this population there are:

104 A1A1 individuals55 A1A2 individuals37 A2A2 individuals

N: 196

The frequency of the A1 is the amount of times that allele appears divided by the total number of alleles in the population.

The A1 allele is present twice in the A1A1 individuals and once in the A1A2. Each individual has 2 alleles, so the total number of alleles is N × 2.

The frequency of the A1 allele can be thus calculated using the following formula:

[tex]freq(A1)=\frac{2*A1A1\ + A1A2}{2*N} \\\\freq(A1)=\frac{2*104\ + 55}{2*196} \\\\\\freq(A1)= 0.67[/tex]

For which one of the following observations were both Lamarck's hypothesis and Darwin's hypothesis in complete agreement?

a. More complex species are descended from less complex species.
b. Gradual evolutionary change explains why organisms are well-suited to their environments.
c. Acquired characteristics are inherited.
d. Use and disuse of organs determines their size in progeny.

Answers

Answer:

b. Gradual evolutionary change explains why organisms are well-suited to their environments.

Explanation:

Darwin and Larmack are both evolutionists  who  believed that the  present organisms  or offspring are descendants of previous organisms. And they are able to survive till today  from previous generation because they have certain  features  that make them resistant to  selective pressure in their environment. Lamarck called  concluded that  changes in the physical features of the present organisms from using a certain body part  more than others  in order to survive is the major reason for their existence and resistant to selective pressure. He called his theory Law of use and disuse .

Darwin believed that,  the ability to survive  by theses organisms  was due to  certain factor or trait(gene) which the descendants must have inherited from  the previous generations,. And these trait(gene) made them to resist selection pressures,and therefore  have higher competition for survival  than other organisms which lack these traits. Thus he concluded that nature must have selected these organisms with certain traits(genes) than others, He tagged his findings  theory if evolution by natural selection.

However both scientists believed that present organisms   are products of Gradual evolutionary changes of million of years ago.

Answer: Option B.

Gradual evolutionary chnges explain why organisms are well suited for their environment.

Explanation:

Lamarck and Darwin are both naturalist that formulate theories. Lamarck theory was called theory of acquired characteristics and Darwin theory was called theory of evolution by natural selection. The two scientist agree that gradual evolutionary changes I.e change in trait and characteristics explain why organisms are well suited in their environment. Lamarck theory describe changes that happen to organisms in their life time and how these changes are passed to their offsprings and Darwin theory supported these that organisms arise from natural selection and inherited variations which help them survive and reproduce in their environment.

If a cell contains a set of duplicated chromosomes, does it contain any more genetic information than the cell before the chromosomes were duplicated?

Answers

Answer:

No.

Explanation:

When the set of chromosomes are duplicated, it means the chromosomes will be double the number.

However the genetic information will not change. It will remain the same.

Duplication of chromosomes is usually occurs among the interphase stage of mitosis where chromosomes will duplicate to ensure the formation of two identical daughter cells.

In these cells there will be no addition or variation in genetic information.

Final answer:

A cell with duplicated chromosomes doesn't contain more genetic information than before; it simply has two identical copies of each chromosome, called sister chromatids. The total DNA in the cell is increased, but genetic content remains consistent. This replication ensures that each daughter cell gets a complete genetic set after cell division.

Explanation:

If a cell contains a set of duplicated chromosomes, it does not contain more genetic information than it did before the chromosomes were duplicated. During DNA replication, each chromosome in the cell creates an exact copy of itself, known as sister chromatids, which are attached at a region called the centromere. While the chromosome number remains the same, for instance in humans (n = 46), the physical amount of DNA within the cell is actually doubled. However, in terms of genetic content, the information stays the same, it's just that each chromosome now consists of two identical chromatids.

During the cell cycle, specifically in the S phase, the DNA replication occurs to prepare a cell for division into two cells. This process is crucial because it ensures that each daughter cell receives a complete set of the organism's genome. In human cells, after replication, there still are 46 chromosomes, but each chromosome is now made up of two sister chromatids. Therefore, after cell division during mitosis, each cell will have the same amount of genetic material, identical to the original parent cell, assuring the continuity of genetic information.

A woman with Turner syndrome is found to be color-blind (an X-linked recessive phenotype). Both her mother and her father have normal vision. a. Explain the simultaneous origin of Turner syndrome and color blindness by the abnormal behavior of chromosomes at meiosis. b. Can your explanation distinguish whether the abnormal chromosome behavior occurred in the father or the mother? c. Can your explanation distinguish whether the abnormal chromosome behavior occurred at the first or second division of meiosis? d. Now assume that a color-blind Klinefelter man has parents with normal vision, and answer parts a, b, and c

Answers

Answer:

A) The turner syndrome is characterized by lacking half chromosome numbers which are also termed as the monosomy as there is only half the number of X linked chromosomes that are responsible for the colorblindness will be greater. The chances are 50% of having this disorder in such a case.

B) The correct answer would be no, as the error will be shown in only one of the due to n number of chromosomes present in both parents.

C) Anaphase II of meiosis II it takes places as here only the strands are pulled to opposite poles of the cell

.

D) Assuming it as Klinefelter man with colorblindness has normal parents then,

a)double XX +Y , the colorblind gene is recessive in XX and Y. or recessive in XX but dominating Y only rules out the other recessive.

b) Explanation is similar as B)

c) Due to a nondisjunction event during meiosis, I or meiosis II in the female X chromosome is still present in it.

How much ATP (in solid form) do you need to weigh, in order to make 1 mL of stock solution with a concentration of 100 mM ATP? The molecular weight of ATP is 551.14

Answers

Answer:

mass(g) = 0.55114g

Explanation:

Given that;

Molarity (M) 100mM = 0.1M

Volume (V) = 1mL

                  =  1.0 × 10⁻³ Litre

numbers of moles =  Molarity × Volume

                               = 0.1M × 1.0 × 10⁻³ L

                               = 0.001

                               = 1.0 × 10⁻³ mol

Now, to determine the mass of ATP (in solid form) that we need to weigh;

we have our numbers of moles to be =[tex]\frac{mass(g)}{molarmass(g)}[/tex]

where;

numbers of moles = 1.0 × 10⁻³ mol

molar mass = 551.14

mass(g) = numbers of moles × molar mass

mass(g) = 1.0 × 10⁻³ mol × 551.14

mass(g) = 0.55114g

∴ 0.55114g ATP(in solid form) is required to be weighed  in order to make 1 mL of stock solution with a concentration of 100 mM ATP.

Do all animals share a common ancestor?

Answers

Answer:

The most recent common ancestor of all currently living organisms is the last universal ancestor, which lived about 3.9 billion years ago. ... 6,331 groups of genes common to all living animals have been identified; these may have arisen from a single common ancestor that lived 650 million years ago in the Precambrian.

Which of these lists reflects the order in which cell organelles participate in the overall process that produces and transports many kinds of protein though the cell?
O Golgi apparatus, vesicles, ribosomes bound to rough endoplasmic reticulum, vesicles
O ribosomes bound to rough endoplasmic reticulum, vesicles, Golgi apparatus, vesicles
O Golgi apparatus, vesicles, ribosomes bound to rough endoplasmic reticulum
O vesicles, Golgi apparatus, ribosomes bound to rough endoplasmic reticulum

Answers

Answer:

O ribosomes bound to rough endoplasmic reticulum, vesicles, Golgi apparatus, vesicles

Explanation:

→Ribosomes  bounded to R.ER are responsible for the mediation of the process of translation and elongation of the amino acids chains during protein synthesis for gebe expression. These R.ER bounded ribosomes are concerned for the synthesis of  proteins for excretion out of the cells.

→As the  protein chains  were  eleongated  on the ribosomes units they are pushed into the   lumen of R.ER into the  intracistern space.Therefore  R.ER is concerned with synthesis and packaging of protein synthesised  by the attached  ribosomes,

→These proteins are  transported in vesicles,( which move through the cytoskeleton of the Cystosol) which budded off from the R.ER membranes.These vessicles transport the synthesized proteins to the Golgi complex.

→The Golgi apparatus receive the  protein from the (R.ER), process it,  and sorted it out  into its vesicles(Golgi vesicles)  for onward  secretion out of the cells through excytosis from the plasma membranes. Example  of this sorting and processing by the Golgi apparatus is the formation of  Glycoprotein by addition of sugars molecules  to proteins .

What causes the myosin head to move into the 'cocked' position after it is released from actin? Group of answer choices ATP binding to myosin. ATP hydrolysis into ADP and Pi on the myosin head. ADP and Pi release from the myosin head Ca2+ binding to troponin.

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

The molecular and cellular mechanisms and processes that explain muscle contraction in striated muscle occur in the myofibril sarcomere. Their understanding depends on the organization's understanding of the structure of the sarcomere. In an imaginary experiment we first assemble an ideal sarcomere.

Remember that the myofibril is a set of cylindrical compartments that are located next to each other, constituting an elongated cylinder. Each of these cylinders is a sarcomere and borders its neighbor on a line or band called, line or band z.

On each side of the z line, thin cylindrical filaments that are actin filaments are inserted. Each actin filament is formed by a double strand of actin molecules that are rolled over each other. In this organization, actin is called actin F.

Final answer:

The myosin head is 'cocked' into a high-energy state due to ATP hydrolysis into ADP and Pi, which occurs after ATP binds to myosin and it detaches from actin.

Explanation:

The cause of the myosin head moving into the 'cocked' position after it is released from actin is ATP hydrolysis into ADP and Pi on the myosin head. When ATP binds to myosin, it results in the release of the myosin head from actin. Subsequently, the hydrolysis of ATP to ADP and inorganic phosphate (Pi) occurs due to the ATPase activity intrinsic to myosin. This process releases energy that changes the angle of the myosin head into the 'cocked' configuration. In this high-energy state, the myosin head has potential energy and is prepared for further movement upon binding to actin again, which is essential for muscle contraction.

An RFLP can be created:_________. a) only by a mutation creating a new restriction enzyme recognition site b) only by a basepair change within the restriction enzyme recognition site c) only by a deletion removing a restriction enzyme reognition site d) by any mutational event that cretes or deletes a restriction enzyme recognition site e) only in RNA

Answers

Answer:

Option B, only by a basepair change within the restriction enzyme recognition site

Explanation:

A restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) consists of alternative alleles with varying sizes of restriction fragments. In the traditional RFLPs, base pairs were changes at the restriction sites. These restriction sites comprises of nucleotide sequences that are identified by restriction enzymes. In RFLP analysis, the restriction fragments are created when restriction enzyme divide DNA into fragments. These restriction fragments are then separated while gel electrophoresis.

Before the advent of PCR, RFLPs (which were predominant form of  DNA variation) were used to analyze linkages.  

Hence, option B is correct

What are the differences between the G0, G1, and G2 phases of the cell cycle? Do all cells proceed through each of these phases? g

Answers

Answer:

The cell division is divided into two main phase - interphase and M (mitosis) phase. The interphase is further divided into G1, S phase and G2 phase.

G1 (gap 1 phase): The G1 phase is marked by the complete growth of the cell. The cells accquire different proteins and factors that are necessary for the cells to undergo the process of DNA rep[lication of the synthesis phase.

G2 phase (gap 2 phase) : During the G2 phase the cells prepares itself to undergo the M phase and underwent through the different phases of the cell cycle. The nuclear envelope forms around DNA and centrosomes are fully developed.

G0 phase: The G0 phase is also known as the extended phase of the G1 cycle. The G0 phase occurs when the cells are completely ready but do not undergo G1 phase, this might occur when the tissue is under the generation process.

The cells will go through the G1, S, G2 and M phase of the cell cycle. This is not necessary that all cells undergo the G0 phase of the cell cycle.

What kind of evidence has recently made it necessary to assign the prokaryotes to either of two different domains, rather than assigning all prokaryotes to the same kingdomA) molecularB) behavioralC) ecologicalD) nutritionalE) anatomical

Answers

Answer:

A) molecular

Explanation:

Prokaryotes have 70S type of ribosomes. The small ribosomal subunit of ribosomes has some conserved sequences. This subunit is similar in the closely related species. On the other hand, the structure of the small ribosomal subunit is different in the organisms that are distantly related.  

Microbiologist Carl Woese analyzed the small ribosomal subunits of some bacteria and Archaeans and found distinct differences. On the basis of the composition of this biomolecule, prokaryotes were divided into eubacteria and archaea.  

Final answer:

Molecular evidence, especially differences in cell membrane structure and SSU rRNA sequences, has led to prokaryotes being classified into two separate domains: Bacteria and Archaea, which differ significantly from each other and from Eukarya.

Explanation:

The evidence that has recently made it necessary to assign the prokaryotes to either of two different domains, rather than assigning all prokaryotes to the same kingdom, is molecular evidence. Advances in genetic analysis have revealed significant genetic differences between two groups of prokaryotes, leading to the classification into two separate domains: Bacteria and Archaea. These domains are based on differences in the structure of cell membranes and in ribosomal RNA (rRNA), specifically the sequences of small-subunit ribosomal RNA (SSU rRNA). While both domains consist of organisms with prokaryotic cells, lacking a nucleus and true membrane-bound organelles, they are as different from each other as they are from the third domain, Eukarya, which includes all eukaryotic organisms with membrane-bound organelles and a nucleus.

What would you expect the F1 generation flies to look like if two scarletmutants were crossed with each other?

Answers

Answer:

complementation test

Explanation:

The easiest examination to differentiate between the two possibilities is the complementation test. The test is simple to perform: two mutants cross and F1 is analyzed. If F1 expresses the wild-type phenotype, we conclude that each mutation is in one of two possible genes necessary for the wild-type phenotype. When it is shown that it is genetically shown that two (or more) genes control a phenotype, the genes are said to form a complementation group. Otherwise, if F1 does not express the wild type phenotype, but rather a mutant phenotype, we conclude that both mutations occur in the same gene.

These two results can be explained considering the importance of genes for phenotypic function. If two separate genes are involved, each mutant will have an injury to one gene while maintaining a wild-type copy of the second gene. When F1 occurs, it will express the mutant allele of gene A and the wild-type allele of gene B (each contributed by one of the mutant parents). F1 will also express the wild type allele for gene A and the mutant allele for gene B (contributed by the other mutant parent). Because F1 is expressing the two necessary wild-type alleles, the wild-type phenotype is observed.

An organism is classified as a heterotroph or autotroph based on the type of ________ it utilizes.. A. respiration source (e.g., oxygen or other) B. nitrogen source C. carbon source D. none of the above

Answers

Answer: Option C) carbon source

Explanation:

The type of Carbon source is the distinction between heterotroph or autotroph. As autotrophs like green plants generate their food (glucose) from simple inorganic molecules like carbon dioxide (CO2) in the atmosphere, while heterotroph like man utilize carbon in carbohydrates such as starch that have been stored in the tissues of autotrophs.

Thus, the type of carbon source utilized distinguished heterotroph and autotrophs

Principles of Ecology: Part 4 FANR/MARS 1100 Law of Tolerance Survival depends on _________________________ of many factors, which can vary greatly. For each factor a given species has a ______________ of __________________________. If environmental conditions exceed upper or lower limitof tolerance, deathcan result.

Answers

Answer:

Survival depends on interaction of many factors, which can vary greatly. For each factor a given species has a range of conditions. If environmental conditions exceed upper or lower limit of tolerance, death can result.

Explanation:

This is the Shelford's law of Tolerance.

This law states that the success of distribution of an organism can be controlled by some factors like topographic, climate, and biological requirements of plants and animals, in which their levels exceed the higher or lower limits of tolerance of the organism.

This was a law proposed by V. E. Shelford in 1911.

You treat cells with the ionic detergent sodium dodecyl-sulfate (SDS) to disrupt the membrane. Will integral membrane proteins be affected by this treatment and how?

Answers

Answer:

Yes. the Integral membrane will be affected.

Explanation:

Generally, Ionic detergents have hydrophilic head group which can be either negatively charged or positively charged. If treated with plasma membrane, it masks the native charge of the protein, colonizing the entire charges of the protein, converting the overall charge  to its own.

To be specific SSD  is anionic. It therefore adds overall negative  charge(anion) to the entire protein charges, even if they have isoelectric points. ''just like the HIV-RNA genome which  undergo retro-transcription of  the entire human DNA genome to its own HIV- genome of the infected host!''.

This disrupts  the hydrogen bonds, hydrophobic interactions and other non-covalent bonds of protein , thus  the 3-Dimensional protein structure of tertiary protein and therefore of the integral membrane proteins . Denaturation of  protein structure, and therefore the conformation protein function  results.With resulting   separation of the protein molecules based on their sizes.

Which of the following is not true regarding the denaturation and reannealing of double-stranded DNA molecules? Which of the following is not true regarding the denaturation and reannealing of double-stranded DNA molecules? Decreasing the salt concentration of the solution lowers DNA's melting point (Tm). Increasing the G-C content of DNA raises its melting point (Tm). Single-stranded DNAs can only anneal to one another if they are 100% identical in nucleotide sequence. Melting point (Tm) is the temperature at which the DNA is one-half double-stranded and one-half single-stranded. DNA is more likely to denature when exposed to a high pH.

Answers

Answer: "Decreasing the salt concentration of the solution lowers DNA's melting point (Tm)" is not a true statement

Explanation:

Increasing salt concentration would lower the DNA's melting point (Tm), not otherwise.

For instance:

- In 8M urea (8M means 8 Moles per dm3), Tm is decreased by nearly 20°C.

- 95% formamide at room temperature would completely denature the double stranded DNA.

Thus, higher concentration of salts like urea or formamide lowers Tm, not otherwise

A scientist discovers a new organism living deep beneath the earth surface this organism thrive despite intense pressure heat lack of water and sunlight this organism is probably a

Answers

Answer:

The organism that can live deep beneath the earth surface despite intense pressure heat lack of water and sunlight might be Nematodes.

Explanation:

Nematodes are able to cope extreme heat or extreme cold and dehydration. They have adopted by learning technique that allows them to survive. They can transform into a hardy form called the dauer stage. They can survive harsh conditions for longer durations at this stage. And again awaken themselves when conditions are favourable again. They can be found in hot springs, deserts, high up mountains and in the deepest oceans.

. A normal vision male marries a female who is a carrier of the color-blind gene and she becomes pregnant. What will a genetic counselor tell the parents regarding the a) percentage of having a daughter who is color-blind; b) what is the percentage of having a son who is color-blind? Consider a different couple with a female with normal vision and a male with normal vision. Would it be possible for their daughter to be a carrier for color-blindness? Explain your answer.

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

a, The genetic counselor should  explain that color-blindness is a sex-linked disorder, that is its  expression is related to a particular sex-cells.

a) The percentage is 0% . This is because your husband is normal, so no sex-linked alleleis attached to his only X-chromosomes.However either of your X-chromosomes can bear the allele for color blind. Since a girl child sex-chromosomes combination is XX, and your husband X chromosomes is normal,hence your daughters can only be carries (XCX, XCX)like you  if they inherited any of your X -chromosomes color blind allele.But none will be colorblind.

b)Because you are carrier for this alllele, and your husband is normal;  chances are all your sons   be   colourblind  is 50% proportion(YXC/YXC).  This is because your husband Y chromosomes determines a male child, and you can  bear the defective(carrier allele)  for  colourblind  on either of your X-chromosmes to give a male child as XY. Thus either of the  male child  assuming  with Mendelian fashion of inheritance, will be colour blind in 50% proportion.

No. A girl child can only be  a carrier for color blindness  if the  inherited the color blind gene from her carrier mother  or the father is color-blind. None of this is present in this scenario.  The two parents are normal Therefore there is no chance of their daughter emerging a carrier.

A genetic counselor would tell the parents that (a) the percentage of having a daughter who is color-blind is 0% and  (b) the percentage of having a son who is color-blind is 50%.

When considering the genetic possibilities for a couple where the female is a carrier of the color-blindness gene and the male has normal vision, genetic counselors would provide the following insights:

The percentage of having a daughter who is color-blind is 0%. This is because for a female to be color-blind, she must inherit two color-blindness genes – one from each parent. In this scenario, the father can only pass on a normal vision gene.

The percentage of having a son who is color-blind is 50%. Since males have only one X chromosome, inherited from their mother, they will be color-blind if that X chromosome carries the color-blindness gene.

For a different couple, both with normal vision, their daughter can still be a carrier for color-blindness if the mother is a carrier or if the father's mother is a carrier. This is because the mother can pass a carrier X chromosome to the daughter, or the father can pass an X chromosome that he inherited from his color-blindness carrier mother.

If you are performing site-directed mutagenesis to test predictions about which residues are essential for a protein’s function. Which of each pair of amino acid substitutions listed below would you expect to disrupt protein structure the most? And why? how do you go abouts knowing this?
O Pro replaced by Gly or His,
O Gln replaced by Glu or Asn,
O Lys replaced by Asp or Arg

Answers

Answer:

O Gln replaced by Glu or Asn

Explanation:

Gln replaced by Glu or Asn, is a non-conservative substitution. Gln has a much shorter side chain or R-group than Glu or Asn. Additionally both Glu and Asn R-groups are polar and negatively charged while Gln is non-polar.In a protein, replacement with Glu or Asn would greatly destabilize the protein by introducing a charge and disrupting hydrophobic interactions formed between Gln and other non-polar residues. By comparing the R-groups of the residues, their length, hydrophobicity, charge and shape. One can predict if the substitution is disruptive or not, if residues are very similar then the interactions that they form are preserved. For example replacing Gln with Ala would be less disruptive.

Which of the following statements are accurate? (MORE THAN ONE ANSWER)
A. Invertebrates are animals that lack a backbone
B. Ecdysozoans typically have an exoskeleton
C. Bilaterians include three clades:
1) Deuterstomia
2) Lophotrochozoa
3) Ecdysozoa
D. Givens about animal "A'
I. the animal has three prominent germ layers
II. an animal has bilateral symmetry
III. the animal lacks a backbone
You would be able to classify this animal, animal A, as a bilaterian
E. All animals share a common ancestor

Answers

Answer:

The statements in options A,B,C,D and E are all correct.

A. Invertebrates lack a back bone

B. Ecdysozoans typically posses a flexible exoskeleton that protects these animals from harmful external factors like water loss.

C. Deuterstomia, Lophotrochozoa and Ecdysozoa are classes of Bilaterians.

D. Animal A is a bilateral because bilateral embryos are triploblastic possessing three germ layers, are bilaterally symmetrical and lack a back bone.

E. All animal from studies are found to have a common ancestry.

Which of the following specialized structures/inclusions would aquatic photoautotrophic bacteria likely possess? 1. Thylakoids 2. PHB Granules 3. Carboxysomes 4. Gas vacuoles 5. Chloroplasts

Answers

Answer:

1. Thylakoids 2. PHB Granules 3. Carboxysomes

Explanation:

1. Thylakoids are membrane bounded compartments present in bacteria for light dependednt reactions.

2. PHB Granules help in carbon fixation

3. Carboxysomes help to retain carbon when enough supply isn't available.

Answer: Option 1,2 and 3.

Thykaloids, PHB granules and carboxysomes.

Explanation:

Carboxysomes consist of polyhedral protein and enzymes Rubisco which is important to supply carbon and fix it.

Thykaloids are membrane bound part of chloroplast which is the site of light dependent reaction during photosynthesis.

PHB granules are important component which help to fix carbon .

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