Answer:
Transformation
Explanation:
The experiment of Griffith on S. pneumoniae leads to the conclusion that the bacteria can take the DNA from the surrounding environment by the process of "Transformation".
He selected the two strains of bacteria, the smooth pathogenic strains (S strains) and the rough non-pathogenic strain (R strains). When he injected the dead S bacteria and live R bacteria, he obtained the live S bacteria from the mice.
He was amazed at how the dead S strain bacteria became alive and concluded that the dead S strain bacteria were transformed into the live S strain bacteria and named the process transformation. The transformation process refers to the uptake of the DNA material from the surrounding environment.
Thus, transformation is the correct answer.
Final answer:
Frederick Griffith's experiments demonstrated that a heat-killed pathogenic S strain transferred a "transforming principle" to a live nonpathogenic R strain, making it pathogenic. This was a key discovery, leading to the understanding that DNA is the material responsible for inheritance and transformation.
Explanation:
In Frederick Griffith's transformation experiments, something remarkable was observed. When Griffith injected a mouse with both the live nonpathogenic R strain and heat-killed pathogenic S strain of Streptococcus pneumoniae, the mouse died, and only the S strain was recovered.
This outcome was unexpected because separately, the live R strain did not kill the mice, and the heat-killed S strain could not cause illness either. Griffith's findings indicated that the nonpathogenic R strain had acquired the ability to form smooth colonies and become pathogenic from the heat-killed S strain.
Griffith concluded that the R strain must have taken up some transforming principle from the heat-killed S strain, which allowed it to become pathogenic. This transformative agent, initially hypothesized to be external DNA, was responsible for changing the morphology and physiology of the R strain, leading to the production of the protective polysaccharide capsule that is a characteristic of the pathogenic S strain. The capsule makes colonies appear smooth and enables the bacteria to evade the immune system, resulting in virulence.
These pivotal experiments played a crucial role in the discovery of DNA as the material of inheritance, paving the way for modern molecular genetics. The phenomenon observed by Griffith is now known as transformation, where genetic material from one cell can be taken up by another, incorporating new genetic information into its own genetic makeup.
The most common forms of peptic ulcer are duodenal and gastric ulcers. What are the most common risk factors for peptic ulcer disease?
Answer:
Peptic ulcer are the open sores which form inside the lining of the stomach and in the upper portion of the small intestine.
The stomach pain is most common symptom of this disease. It is not caused by spicy food and stress.
It is caused by the infection of bacterium Helicobacter pylori and it cam also be caused due to long term intake of the non steroidal anti inflammatory drug.
The risk is person should not take spicy food once he is detected by this disease and should discontinue the drugs causing this disease.
The most common risk factors for peptic ulcer disease include infection with Helicobacter pylori, the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), smoking, alcohol consumption, and stress.
Explanation:The most common risk factors for peptic ulcer disease include:
Infection with Helicobacter pylori: This gram-negative bacterium is found in over 90% of duodenal ulcers and approximately 80% of stomach ulcers.Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): Frequent or long-term use of NSAIDs, such as aspirin or ibuprofen, can increase the risk of peptic ulcers.Smoking: Smoking damages the protective lining of the stomach and increases the production of stomach acid, making ulcers more likely to form.Alcohol: Excessive alcohol consumption can irritate the stomach lining and contribute to the development of ulcers.Stress: While stress alone does not cause ulcers, it can worsen symptoms and delay healing.Learn more about Risk factors for peptic ulcer disease here:
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Lactose, a sugar in milk, is composed of one glucose molecule joined by a glycosidic linkage to one galactose molecule. How is lactose classified?
Answer:
as a disaccharide
Explanation:
A monosaccharide is a class of sugars that can not be hydrolyzed into smaller units. They are the simplest and smallest unit of sugars. They are also the building block of complex sugars.
Disaccharides are the class of sugar that is made by the joining of two monosaccharides. These monosaccharides are joined together by glycosidic linkage.
For example, lactose is a disaccharide which is made up of glucose and a galactose molecule which are joined together by a glycosidic bond.
Lactose is classified as a disaccharide, a category of carbohydrates, because it is composed of two monosaccharides, glucose and galactose, joined together by a glycosidic linkage.
Explanation:
Lactose, known as milk sugar, falls under the category of disaccharides. Disaccharides are a type of carbohydrate that consists of two monosaccharide molecules. In the case of lactose, these monosaccharides are glucose and galactose. These two monosaccharides are linked together by a glycosidic linkage. This linkage is formed through a dehydration synthesis reaction, whereby a water molecule is released. Thus, lactose is classified as a disaccharide due to its composition of two monosaccharide units.
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Corrine was getting a cup of coffee at a local convenience store when the cashier was confronted by masked gunmen. As the cashier reached below the counter to press an alarm, one of the gunmen shot her. Two weeks later, Corrine is still badly shaken. She is too frightened to run routine errands in her neighborhood. She startles easily. Although she is troubled by random flashbacks to the event, she finds that she can recall surprisingly little about it when she is directly asked. Corrine is MOST likely to be diagnosed with ______ disorder.
Meiosis results in independent assortment of maternal and paternal chromosomes. If 2n = 6 for a given organism and there is no crossing over, what is the chance that a gamete produced by this diploid organism will receive only paternal chromosomes?
Final answer:
The chance that a gamete will receive only paternal chromosomes when 2n=6, assuming no crossing over and independent assortment, is 1 in 8, or 12.5%.
Explanation:
The subject of the question is independent assortment in meiosis. If an organism has a diploid number of 6 (2n = 6), for each of the 3 pairs of chromosomes, there is an equal chance of receiving either the maternal or paternal chromosome.
Since independent assortment ensures that gametes receive a random combination of these chromosomes, there are 23 possible combinations, or 8 possible combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes. The chance of receiving only paternal chromosomes in a gamete is therefore 1 in 8, or 12.5%.
It is important to note that this calculation assumes no crossing over occurs, which typically introduces further genetic variation.
Behavior genetics rests in part on the premise that, to the extent that genetic factors are important, individuals who _________ should be more similar than are individuals who _________.
Answer:
1.are closely related
2.unrelated
Explanation:
Final answer:
Behavior genetics suggests that individuals who are more genetically related are likely to be more similar in personality and behavior than those who are less genetically related. Twin and adoption studies are common methods for exploring the relative influences of genetics and environment on behavior.
Explanation:
Behavior genetics rests on the premise that, to the extent that genetic factors are important, individuals who are more genetically related should be more similar than are individuals who are less genetically related. Studies in behavior genetics utilize methods like twin studies and adoption studies to disentangle the influences of genes and environment on behavior. Twin studies compare identical and fraternal twins to ascertain how much a trait is genetically determined, while adoption studies look at similarities between adopted individuals and their biological versus adoptive parents to assess genetic and environmental influences.
Furthermore, research suggests that personality traits can be significantly determined by genetics, although environmental factors also play a key role. Individuals are often found to have similar preferences and behaviors as their genetically related family members, highlighting the genetic influence on personality and behavior. Nevertheless, experiences such as community interactions, media consumption, and friendships contribute importantly to personality development, showcasing the interplay between genetics and environment.
compare and contrast the processes of photosynthesis and aerobic respiration. how are they similar and how do they differ?
Answer:
Explanation:
Photosynthesis and cellular respiration (aerobic) are both metabolic processes that occur in specialized organnelles of living cells. These two processes are so unique to one another in the sense that one uses the product of the other as a reactant and vice versa.
Photosynthesis is an anabolic reaction that occurs in the Chloroplast of autotrophs in which captured energy from sun is used to synthesize organic food (glucose) by combining carbondioxide (CO2) and water. Oxygen is released in this photosynthetic process.
6CO2 + 6H20 --------> C6H12O6 + 6O2
Aerobic cellular respiration, on the other hand, is a catabolic process undergone by every aerobic living cell (in the mitochondria) in which glucose is broken down in the presence of oxygen to produce ATP (energy) releasing CO2 and water (H2O) in the process.
C6H12O6 + 6O2 ------> 6C02 + 6H2O
One spectacular difference is that photosynthesis uses solar energy (from sun) while aerobic cellular respiration uses chemical energy to power the process.
Aerobic respiration is ultimately the reaction of glucose with oxygen to generate carbon dioxide, water, and energy. However, in a cell this process involves the transfer of electrons from glucose to carriers such as NAD over a lengthy series of steps. Why don't cells employ the direct reaction of glucose with oxygen to generate energy?
Answer:
Cells don't employ the direct reaction of glucose with oxygen to generate energy because the direct transfer of electrons from glucose to oxygen occurs via a combustion reaction that is incompatible with life.
Explanation:
Aerobic respiration is a process by which chemical energy is released in cells during the breakdown of food e.g glucose.
Cells don't employ the direct reaction of glucose with oxygen to generate energy because the direct transfer of electrons from glucose to oxygen occurs via a combustion reaction that is incompatible with life.
NAD is used to temporarily store high energy electrons harvested from glucose molecules in a series of gradual steps in the cytoplasm.
Answer:
Glucose is a very high energy rich stable compound.Therefore to extract the energy it contains it must first be broken down in a step wise reactions called Glycolysis to generate ATPs needed in subsequent steps.
If glucose molecules reacted directly with oxygen(burnt in oxygen). This is an example of combustion reaction, which involves the transfer of electrons between glucose and oxygen atoms through pathways in which the energy produced can not be harness by the cells.it is therefore not physiologically compatible with normal cellular reactions of life.
How could you increase the magnitude of excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) generated at a synapse?
Answer:
Generally, for excitatory post synaptic potential to be generated, positively charged ions e.g. Ca+ must diffuse through the ligand gated ion channels into the pre-synaptic neuron neuron ; while preventing the outflow of positively charged ions e.g K+ from the pre- synaptic membrane.
The influx of calcium ion causes migration in the pre- synaptic neuron of vesicles contain cholinergic excitatory neurotransmitters Acetycholine. This binds to the post -synaptic receptors for opening of ligand gated ion channels for Sodium ions . The influx of Sodium ions causes depolarization which if magnitude is up to threshold levels causes EPSPs.
Therefore, to increase the magnitude of excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) generated at a synapse;
Increasing the influx of positively charged Ca+ in the pre-synaptic neuron,while decreasing the ouflux of positively charged k+ ions; will increase number of acetycholine containing excitatory neurotransmitters vesicles migration to the pre-synaptic membrane, and therefore more acetycholine molecules diffusion into the synaptic membrane for binding with the post-synaptic receptors. This leads to opening of more sodium ion channels, for more depolarization and therefore increase in generation of EPSPs magnitude.
Explanation:
The magnitude of excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) generated at a synapse can be increased by spatial summation.
The spatial summation refers to the phenomenon of eliciting action potentials in a neuron from multiple presynaptic cells.This process (spatial summation) involves the simultaneous stimulation of different (separated) neurons at the same time.Conversely, the temporal summation is the mechanism by which a presynaptic neuron releases many neurotransmitters that fire a given action potential.In conclusion, the magnitude of excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) generated at a synapse can be increased by spatial summation.
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Neurons in the prefrontal cortex ____ than neurons in other cortical areas. Select one: a. are more sensitive to light b. have greater velocities of action potentials c. have more dendritic spines d. are larger in size
Answer:
The correct answer is - option C. have more dendritic spines.
Explanation:
Prefrontal cortex or PFC is the cerebral cortex covering front area of the front lobe which is related to the decision making behavior and problem solving decision.
Neurons present in the prefrontal cortex have many more than the other cortical area as they involve in cognitive processing. These have more are devoted to a specific modality, like areas in the sensory, motor or visual cortex
Thus, the correct answer is - option C. have more dendritic spines.
An individual who has encountered a large black bear while camping out in the woods with friends will most likely experience an increase in all of the following hormones except __________.A. epinephrine
B. norepinephrine
C. cortisol
D. progesterone
Answer:
D. progesterone
Explanation:
Answer:
The correct answer choice is D.) Progesterone
Explanation:
Progesterone is a female reproductive hormone
Which items are used to show elevation, relief, and slope on a topographic map? Check all that apply.
topographic lines
contour lines
index contours
topographic symbols
contour interval
topographic interval
index topography
Answer:
contour lines index contours contour intervalExplanation:
Topographic maps are those that show a detailed projection of the relief of a specific place. This type of map usually presents in a very detailed and precise form the necessary information so that it is possible to know an area geographically and to know if that region has forests, springs, urban areas, slopes, plains, among other characteristics. These maps allow it to be analyzed if a region has elevation, relief and inclination, for that, contour lines, contours of the index and contour interval are used to expose this information.
The items that are used to show elevation, relief and slope on a topographic map is
contour lines index contours contour intervalThe following information should be considered:
Topographic maps are those that represent a detailed projection of the relief of a particular place. This type of map represent in a very elaborate and precise form the significant information so that it is possible to get to know an area geographically and to know whether the region has forests, springs, urban areas, slopes, plains, among other characteristics.Learn more: brainly.com/question/17429689
Type the correct answer in the box. Spell all words correctly. On what does consumer's willingness to pay depends? Consumers' willingness to pay depends on their income and prices of related goods.Type the correct answer in the box. Spell all words correctly. On what does consumer's willingness to pay depends? Consumers' willingness to pay depends on their income and prices of related goods.
Final answer:
The willingness to pay is shaped by a consumer's income, prices of related goods, and preferences. Income decides purchase elasticity, while the substitution effect is about opting for cheaper alternatives, and the income effect concerns the change in purchasing power.
Explanation:
Consumers' willingness to pay for goods and services is influenced by several factors including income, prices of related goods, and preferences.
Income affects demand in that a higher income typically reduces the elasticity of price demand; individuals with higher incomes may not change their purchasing habits significantly with price increases. Conversely, those with lower incomes might be more sensitive to price changes. The prices of related goods also play a key role. When the price of one product goes up, consumers might switch to a cheaper alternative, this is known as the substitution effect. In contrast, the income effect occurs when a price change affects consumers' purchasing power, leading them to alter their overall consumption patterns.
Preferences, which reflect a consumer's tastes and needs, also significantly influence what they are willing to purchase. An individual will not buy a product if they do not need or want it, regardless of their income or the product's price.
Consumer's willingness to pay depends on their disposal income and prices of related goods.
Consumer's willingness to pay is influenced by their disposable income and the prices of related goods, with the consumption of normal goods typically rising with income and falling for inferior goods, while the prices of complements and substitutes also play a significant role in purchase decisions.
Disposable income significantly affects the demand for various types of goods. People with higher incomes are generally less sensitive to price changes, meaning the demand for the products they buy tends to be less elastic. Conversely, those with lower incomes are more prone to adjust their purchasing decisions in response to price fluctuations.
Normal goods see an increase in consumption as income rises, while consumption of inferior goods decreases as income rises. Additionally, the demand for a product can also be impacted by the prices of related goods, namely complements and substitutes. An increase in the price of a complement may reduce the demand for the related good, whereas an increase in the price of a substitute may increase demand for the good in question.
The income effect can lead to increased purchasing power and therefore higher consumption of goods that the consumer prefers, which is reflected in the outward shift of the demand curve when income increases. These shifts demonstrate the changing levels of consumer choice as they respond to variations in their disposable income and market prices.
The question is:
Consumer's willingness to pay depends on their _____ income and prices of related goods.
Other than genes, name three other regions of chromosomes? What are their functions? Which of them represent euchromatin? Heterochromatin?
Answer:
Other than genes, chromosomes has following regions :
1) Centromere : It is the attachment point for spindle microtubules (heterochromatic)
2) Telomeres : These are the natural ends, the tips of linear chromosomes that has a role to stabilize the chromosome (Heterochromatic)
3) Intergenic regions : Intergenic DNA acts to control the genes nearby but it has not currently known function.
4) Origin of replication - It is the site where DNA synthesis begins (euchromatic)
Explanation:
Which of the following cheeses would likely spoil the most quickly? a. A high fat, high salt variety. b. A low fat, low salt variety. c. A low fat, high salt variety. d. A high fat, low salt variety.
Answer:
b
Explanation:
Answer: A low fat, low salt variety
Explanation: just got it right
_______________ refers to people's ideas about their own and others' mental states; that is, how feelings, perceptions, or thoughts might predict behavior.
Answer:
Theory of mind is the correct answer.
Explanation:
Theory of mind relates to the capability to know and understand the other's and own mental states and also to recognize that how the mental states, ideas, passions, intentions, and prospects that are separate from one's own.The development of a theory of mind is important during the developmental method. Theory of mind is important because it helps to know and predict the reaction and expression of others.There are approximately eight different terrestrial animals used commercially for food in the UnitedStates. Identify all that you can find in the meat department. Choose two and discuss how these animals were mostly likely raised and brought to harvest.
Answer:Ducks, geese,cows,turkeys,pig,sheep,fish, chickens
Explanation: commercial chickens are raised using poultry farming method , in which birds like chickens and ducks are raised for meat and eggs.
Indoor broilers are meat chickens which are raised indoors with a controlled temperature and are usually placed on the floor which is covered in peanut shells. They are slaughtered when they have stayed there for atleast 5 weeks or more and their weight is used to measure if they are ready for harvest.
Broilers are not restricted into cages but are raised in open space in house call grow out houses
Fish
Commercial fishes are also farmed as eggs until they reach a harvest time .
A particular method used is called ranching where fishes are raised in cages such as tuna is ranched while salmon is farmed using method called pisciculture in which enclosed tanks are used such as ponds .
Why are fixed pieces of equipment, such as bouncy seats, high chairs, and playpens, detrimental to an infant's development?
Answer:
These equipment limit children opportunities to experience diverse and active childhood experiences.
Explanation:
Parts of child basic developmental psychology is socialization through interaction with different environments of diverse objects and individuals. This stimulate brain developments, builds child's confidence, approach and allow movements from one location to another. However, fixed piece equipment which although may provide rooms for slight skeletal exercises,do not allow interaction with other infants in diverse environments, and this limit exposure to diverse and active childhood experiences.
Final answer:
Fixed equipment like bouncy seats, high chairs, and playpens can be detrimental to infants' development by limiting physical activity and exploration, delaying milestones in physical development, and reducing interaction with the environment, which is essential for sensory-motor skills, cognitive development, and social and emotional growth.
Explanation:
Fixed pieces of equipment such as bouncy seats, high chairs, and playpens are sometimes seen as detrimental to an infant's development for a few key reasons. These devices can limit the amount of physical activity and exploration an infant engages in, which are critical components of their development. Physical movement, like crawling and walking, helps in the development of muscle strength, coordination, and brain development. When infants spend a lot of time in these devices, they miss out on opportunities to explore their environment, learn how to navigate obstacles and develop their motor skills naturally through free play.
Moreover, excessive use of these devices can also delay milestones in physical development such as rolling over, sitting up, or crawling. Engaging with the environment directly also enhances sensory-motor skills and cognitive development through touching, feeling, and manipulating objects. Interaction with caregivers and the environment, which is lessened when an infant is confined, is crucial for social and emotional growth as well.
While these pieces of equipment can be beneficial for short periods, ensuring that infants have plenty of floor time and opportunities for direct interaction with their surroundings and people is essential for holistic development. Using these devices judiciously, while prioritizing active, supervised play, can mitigate potential developmental drawbacks.
can be used by cells to store energy, form biological membranes, and serve as chemical messengers. A) Carbohydrates B) Fructose C) Glucose D) Lipids
Answer: Option D. Lipids
Explanation:
Lipids store its energy in forms of triglycerides in the cells of animals. lipids can provide energy at a steady pace whereas carbohydrates releases all its energy at once.
Some lipids such as steroid act as hormones which serve as chemical messengers between cells. Steroids are chemical messengers for the body. All steroids are derived from cholesterol,
Cell membranes are made of phospholipids, this type of lipid and this lipd has a polar end because of the phosphate group.
In attempting to find the causative agent for a particular disease, you find that the agent remains infectious even after treatment with DNAse, an enzyme that degrades DNA. What could the disease's causative agent be?
Answer:
a RNA virus
Explanation:
Causative agents of diseases are also known as pathogens. Pathogens include bacteria, fungi, protozoas, microscopic algae, virus, etc.
Pathogens cause disease by penetrating and infecting susceptible organisms. In order to do this, they need their genomes.
The genomes of pathogens are in form of DNA, except for virus whose genome can also be in the form of RNA.
Hence, treatment with a DNA-degrading enzyme will neutralize all pathogens, except a RNA virus.
A 75-year-old client is diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and chronic congestive heart failure. The physician orders a combination of digoxin and diuretics to treat the client's diseases. Recent laboratory results indicate that the client's potassium level is 2 mEq/L. This client is at risk for which problem?
Digoxin toxicity T/F
Answer:
It's True
Explanation:
There are true evidences related to the Digioxins and Diuretics toxicity in patients with atrial fibrillation and chronic congestive heart failure. The Digioxins causes the Potassium to be flowed out of body by means of kidneys filtration fluctuation and the person eventually becomes hypokalemic. This can eventually end up in death.
Koch's postulates established criteria for proving that a specific organism causes a specific disease. Which of the following is NOT one of the criteria given by Koch's postulates? 1. The pathogen isolated from a pure culture must cause the disease in a healthy lab animal. 2. The pathogen must be isolated from inoculated animals and must be different from the original organism. 3. The pathogen must be isolated from the diseased host and grown in pure culture. 4. The same pathogen must be present in every case of the disease.
Answer:
2. The pathogen must be isolated from inoculated animals and must be different from the original organism.
Explanation:
Koch postulates says that every disease is caused by a pathogen. That pathogen can be isolated from the host and can be grown in pure culture. If this pure culture is inoculated into a healthy host than it must cause the disease in that host. The same pathogen can be again isolated from the second host.
Therefore according to Koch's postulated the pathogen must be isolated from the inoculated animals and must be the same as the original organism therefore the second option is wrong.
__________denotes the spatial arrangement of a molecule that is determined by the presence of either double bonds or chiral centers. refers to the spatial arrangement of substituted groups that are free to assume different positions in space.A) Primary structure; Secondary structureB) Conformation; ConfigurationC) Allosterism; Dynamic steady stateD) Configuration; ConformationE) Secondary structure; Tertiary structure
Answer:
answer b!
Explanation:
A biologist observes that a particular plant species is found in a forest but not in a nearby meadow. She hypothesizes that the plants could grow in the meadow but are not found there because their seeds have yet to land in the meadow. Which of the following would be the most appropriate way to scientifically evaluate this hypothesis?
1. constructing a logical argument about why her hypothesis must be true
2. measuring how far the seeds typically travel from their parent plant
3. scattering seeds in several areas of the meadow and observing whether they start to grow
4. observing how long it takes the seeds to eventually reach the meadow
Answer:
3
Explanation:
An hypothesis is a proposed explanation to an observation or an intelligent guess about a phenomenon made with little evidence at the beginning before proceeding to do further investigation or research. The most appropriate way to scientifically evaluate the hypothesis is to scatter seeds in several areas of the meadow and observed whether they will start to grow.
The vagina is at risk for infection because of its location and because it opens to the outside of the body. What is a protective mechanism of the vagina to keep from becoming infected?
A) Maintains an alkaline pH of 7 to 8, which destroys invading bacteria
B) Normal vaginal pH is acidic (4 to 5), which protects from infection
C) Normal vaginal flora act as phagocytes of invading bacteria
D) Produces its own natural antibiotics
Answer:
The correct answer is option B) "Normal vaginal pH is acidic (4 to 5), which protects from infection".
Explanation:
Vaginal flora, or vaginal microbiota, is defined as the group of microorganisms that a healthy vagina normally has. At normal conditions, vaginal pH is acidic, which functions as a protective mechanisms because vaginal flora prosper at this condition and avoids unwanted bacteria to growth. A pH above 5, is an non healthy environment and could cause vaginal infections such as bacterial vaginosis.
A situation where there are more than two alternative forms of a given gene would be called ________.
Answer:Genetic polymorphism
Explanation:occurrence of multiple form of a gene called allele at a locus within a population.
A _____ reinforcer is any reward that satisfies a basic, biological need, such a hunger, thirst, or touch.
The question is incomplete as it does not have the options which are:
a. primary
b. negative
c.positive
d. secondary
Answer:
A) primary
Explanation:
In psychology, a reinforcer refers to a stimulus which strengthens the behaviour and increases the chances or probability of the desired response.
The reinforcer can be of two types on the basis of pairing with a stimulus as a primary reinforcer and secondary reinforcer.
The primary reinforcer refers to the stimulus which is present in the humans from birth and is evolved as a part of the evolution for survival. The primary reinforcer does not depend on the stimulus and therefore is considered unconditioned reinforcer. Since it has evolved as part of the evolution for survival, therefore, strengthen the behaviour such as sex, hunger, water, touch.
Thus, A) primary is the correct answer.
A primary reinforcer satisfies basic biological needs and provides innate reinforcing qualities without the need for learning; examples include food, water, and touch.
A primary reinforcer is any reward that satisfies a basic, biological need, such as hunger, thirst, or touch. Primary reinforcers have innate reinforcing qualities and are not learned. They include necessities like water, food, sleep, shelter, sex, and touch. Importantly, primary reinforcers are linked to survival and are intrinsically rewarding; they fulfill our physical needs and can also provide pleasure. For example, jumping into a cool lake on a hot day would be inherently reinforcing as it both meets the physical need of cooling down and is pleasurable.
"Clostridium difficile is a bacterium that is often found in the gastrointestinal tract of healthy individuals. It is also a common cause of hospital-acquired infections. Most individuals who become ill with C. difficile do so following antibiotic treatment. This information suggests that C. difficile"
Answer: The information suggests that C. difficile is the leading cause of hospital-acquired infections usually as a result of antibiotics use.
Explanation: Antibiotics are employed to inhibit or kill bacteria. When used properly, they target aggressive bacteria that are causing infections. But sometimes healthy gut bacteria are killed in the process (normal healthy gut bacteria helps keep C. difficile in check) creating a vacuum which with increasing frequency, C. difficile seizes, and proliferates — especially in hospitalized patients, many of whom are not so strong to withstand the stress of diarrhea and fever.
Some of these antibiotics that most often lead to C. difficile infections include the quinolones, cephalosporines etc. including some proton-pump medications.
If Jacques were to hold his breath the air in his lungs would be kept at a constant temperature. Would it be safe for Jacques to hold his breath while ascending from the bottom of the lake to the surface?
Answer:
It isn't safe at all...
Explanation:
Even if remains at constant temperature, while ascending to the surface of the lake Jacques lung pressure will increase if he hold its breath. Thats because the pressure of water weakens and the pre-hold breath in lungs will expand as he rises. This can cause serious lung damage and drowning is possible.
Bacteria and fungi are important to humans because they: A. help control weeds. B. pollinate crop plants. C. provide shelter. D. deplete nutrient minerals in the soil. E. provide foods and antibiotics.
Answer:
E. provide foods and antibiotics.
Explanation:
sometimes microorgansims plays important role for human such as;
Bacteria;
Present in our gut help to digest food and the gut of animal such sa cattle help to digest cellulose.Bacteria are used in the production of food products such as yogurt and cheese.Help in pest control such as Bacillus thurigiensis.Help in the production of certain medicines and supplement such as InsulinFungi;
There are many mushrooms we can eat and fungi are also involved in the production of certain food products such as wine, bread.Fungi are involved in production of certain medicines such as penicillin is produced from Penicillium.
Which of the following is not true?
a. oxygen 16 evaporates more readily from the ocean than oxygen 18
b. oxygen 16 and oxygen 18 are found in roughly equal amounts in ocean water
c. the nucleus of oxygen 18 contains two more neutrons than the nucleus of oxygen 16
d. both oxygen 16 and oxygen 18 are found in the shells of marine organisms
Answer:
Option (B)
Explanation:
Oxygen-16 and Oxygen-18 are both an isotope of oxygen. The O-16 is a lighter isotope and it indicates a warmer climate and the O-18 is a heavier isotope and it is a good indicator of colder climate. These differences in the climate occur due to the effects of both the factors namely precipitation and evaporation.
The O-16 isotope being lighter evaporates much rapidly, so in the tropical regions where the temperature is relatively high, there occur a high amount of O-18 in the ocean. In addition to this, when the water vapor starts to condense, it starts to rain and the water droplets produced during rainfall are enriched in the concentration of O-18, as it is much heavier than the O-16.
These amount of O-16 and O-18 are always found to be present in unequal amounts or proportion in the ocean water as these processes such as precipitation and evaporation takes place continuously.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B), which is not true.