Answer:
The correct answer is Option "C"
Explanation:
According to twin studies, it has been estimated that the heritability of major depressive disorders (MDD) is around 37% to 40%. On average, people who share at least 50% of their genes with a family member that has MDD has more than 2 times at risk of having MDD themselves.
It has also been concluded from research that negative affectivity, or neuroticism, has a major link with the onset of MDD. In response to a stressful life, individuals with high levels of neuroticism are at a higher risk of developing MDD
A prescriber has ordered clonidine [Catapres] for a patient who has hypertension. The nurse teaches the patient about the side effects of this drug. Which statement by the patient indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Answer:
"I should chew sugar-free gum or drink water to reduce dry mouth."
Explanation:
Clonidine is an agonist at the alpha-2 receptors ( adrenergic receptors ).
There is an area in the central nervous system (lateral hypothalamus) responsible for the secretion of saliva ,as the clonidine acts on the central alpha-2 receptors ,it causes inhibition of the secretion of the saliva resulting in dry mouth.
As the alpha-2 receptors are inhibitory receptors (Gi-coupled ) clonidine results in decreased sympathetic autonomic nervous system outflow by activating alpha-2 receptors in the CNS.
he ideas of Sigmund Freud led to the formulation of ____ theory. a.behavioralb.cognitivec.humanisticd.psychoanalytic
Answer:
increase
Explanation:
Sigmund Freud's ideas led to the formulation of psychoanalytic theory, which focused on the unconscious mind's impact on behavior and utilized methods like dream analysis. Despite criticisms, Freud's theories shaped the foundation of personality psychology and psychotherapy.
d is correct
Explanation:The ideas of Sigmund Freud led to the formulation of psychoanalytic theory. Freud developed his theory of human personality through in-depth interviews with a few clients over an extended period, an approach known as a case study. He believed that the unconscious mind was essential to understand conscious behavior, especially in patients suffering from various hysterias and neuroses. Freud's work on psychoanalytic theory focused on unconscious drives influenced by sex and aggression, along with childhood sexuality, and it remained a dominant force in clinical psychology for several decades. Figures like Carl Rogers, who introduced the concept of client-centered therapy, were also influenced by Freud, but humanistic therapy also emerged as an approach focusing on the potential for good in all people.
Freud's psychoanalytic methods included dream analysis, slips of the tongue, and free association as means to access the unconscious. Despite being criticized for the lack of falsifiability, the impact of Freud's psychoanalytic theory on the field of psychology, particularly in personality psychology and psychotherapy, is undeniable.
This fossil evidence provides support for the idea that A. modern organisms have evolved from earlier species. B. changes can only occur in a species' feet and teeth. C. modern organisms within a species are identical to their ancestors. D. ancient species are now extinct and modern species have spontaneously generated.
Answer:
This fossil evidence provides support for the idea that (a) modern organisms have evolved from earlier species.
Explanation:
Fossil Evidence: Fossils are evidence or clues that have been left behind by living things and are found by archaeologists. They are tools that are helpful for understanding the diverse groups of organisms that have lived in our planet at one time or another.
we define fossil as any preserved evidence of an organism.
Answer:
Modern organisms have evolved from earlier species.
Explanation:
Scientists often use fossil evidence as evidence for the theory of evolution because fossils show how modern organisms have evolved from earlier species.
In the article, "Alzheimer's preventative drug hope", researchers discovered a neurostatin that could be used as a preventative measure to stop the condition appearing in the first place.
A) True
B) False
Answer:
A) True
Explanation:
In this article, researchers reported the founding of a drug that targets the first step in the reaction that leads to brain cell's death that subsequently leads to Alzheimer's.
I hope you find this information useful and interesting! Good luck!
John underwent a body composition test that involved being submerged to compare his underwater weight with land weight to determine his level of body fat. This method of assessment is known as a ________.
Answer:
Hydrostatic weighing.
Explanation:
Hydrostatic weighing may be defined as the method used to find the density or the measurement of the mass per unit volume of the living organisms. This application is based on the Archimedes principle.
The level of the body fat can also be determined by the hydrostatic weighing. The fat content of the individual body can be determined by the formula , Fat % = [4.950 /Density - 4.500]×100. The density needs to be calculated by
Density = Mass in air / Mass in air - Mass in water ÷ density of water - residual volume.
Thus, the answer is hydrostatic weighing.
Answer:
Hydrostatic weighing.
Explanation:
An acute stressor has a long duration and no clear end point. Please select the best answer from the choices provided T F
Answer:
It Is FALSE that an acute stressor has a long duration and no clear end point.
Explanation:
Acute stress : this is a type of stress that you would suffer from for a short period of time.for example like being hold up by a traffic jam, an argument with your friend e.t.c.
Acute stress is a short-term stress
The need for iron is greater in ___.
men who engage in strenuous physical activity
menopausal women
women during pregnancy
people who use tobacco
A young child who used to like bananas now gets nauseated if he has to eat them. This has happened ever since he fell ill two months ago from spinning on a carousel right after eating a banana in the playground. This would be an example of a:_________
Answer:
Food Aversion
Explanation:
Final answer:
A child's nausea when eating bananas after a negative experience on a carousel exemplifies taste aversion conditioning, which is a type of Pavlovian conditioning. This learned response is biologically advantageous as it helps organisms avoid harmful substances.
Explanation:
The young child's newfound nausea when faced with bananas, after a negative experience of falling ill from spinning on a carousel right after eating one, is an example of taste aversion conditioning. Taste aversion occurs when a previously neutral taste is paired with an unpleasant experience such as sickness, causing the organism to reject and dislike that taste in the future. Pavlovian conditioning, or classical conditioning, helps to explain this phenomenon, where the banana (conditioned stimulus) becomes associated with the feeling of nausea (unconditioned stimulus), even though the banana was not the direct cause of the sickness.
This type of learning is biologically advantageous, because it helps organisms avoid potentially harmful substances. The example provided illustrates how an innocuous food associated with a negative experience can trigger aversion even after a single instance, which is an especially relevant concept for understanding how certain treatments, like chemotherapy, can inadvertently lead to taste aversions in patients.
Taylor was in a car accident when she was six months pregnant. Her doctors are worried that the accident may have caused problems with prenatal development because she is in the ________ period.
The feeling component of attitudes is referred to as _____. A. cognition B. affect C. sadvertsing D. personality E. self-concept
Answer:
B. affect
Explanation:
Attitudes have 3 different components, which are affective, behavioral, and cognitive.
The affective component of attitudes which refers to the feelings or emotional response exhibited towards an object or a person. Such feelings or emotions could be that of fear, like, hate. For example, one could say “I hate mathematics”. The affective component of his attitude is his emotion which is depicted by the word “hate”.
The feeling component of attitudes in psychology is referred to as affect. This component represents the emotional response a person has towards a certain subject or topic.
Explanation:In psychology, attitudes are often composed of three main components: cognition (the thoughts), affect (the feelings), and behavior (the actions). The feeling component of attitudes is referred to as affect. This refers to the emotional response or feeling that a person has towards a certain subject or situation. For example, a person might feel joy when thinking about spending time with friends (affective component), understand the benefits of social interaction (cognitive component), and therefore choose to spend a lot of time socializing (behavioral component).
Learn more about Affect here:https://brainly.com/question/35886483
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Nutrients are the constituents in food that the body requires to function properly. units of measure that indicate the amount of energy in a particular food. made up of three basic food groups: proteins, carbohydrates, and fats. the healthful compounds found in vitamins and minerals.?
Answer:
the constituents in food that the body requires to function properly.
Explanation:
Nutrients are the constituent of which a food is made up of and are required by the body to function properly. They provide energy to our body to perform the necessary and essential metabolic activities.
They help in body growth and tissue repair. There are six major nutrients that we get from our food. These nutrients are- carbohydrate, fat, protein, vitamin, mineral, and water.
Nutrient is required by every organism to survive. Some nutrients are required in large amounts called macronutrients and some in the small amounts called micronutrients.
list four things you can do to lower your risk for cardiovascular disease
Answer:
Fortunately, there are many things you can do to reduce your chances of getting heart disease:
Control your blood pressure.
Eat a healthy diet.
Get regular exercise.
Limit alcohol.
Don't smoke.
Manage stress.
Explanation:
I listed a few more than 4
Hope this helps! :}
The textbook reports research showing that people with autism had fewer connections between brain areas than did siblings or controls. Which neuroscientific technique might a researcher use if she wished to replicate this finding?
Answer:
diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)
Explanation:
Diffusion tensor imaging (DTI) is a recently developed technique that makes use of magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to analyze the nerve cells anatomy and the neuronal network that is found in the brain. This technique, an improved version of conventional MRI, was introduced for the first time in 1994 by Peter Joel Basser, who specializes in Healthcare Management, Quantitative Imaging, Brain Imaging and Neuroplasticity.
A 6-year-old child who has Down syndrome has been participating in OT to promote visual-motor integration. Standardized tests of visual attention indicate the child scored -1.0 standard deviations from the norm. Based on the hierarchy of visual-skills development, which client factor should be addressed NEXT?
Answer:
Based on the hierarchy of visual-skills development, The client factor should be addressed NEXT is Sensory Integration.
Explanation:
Sensory Integration: this is what is being used to describe the process by which the brain allows us take information we receive from our five sense organs, organize it and respond accurately to it.
Crohn disease has a distinguishing pattern in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract. The surface has granulomatous lesions surrounded by normal-appearing mucosal tissue. A complication of the pattern includes:________
Answer: Cobblestone
Explanation:
Crohn's disease can be defined as an inflammatory bowel disease which may affect the segment of the gastrointestinal tract that covers the mouth to the anus. This disease is characterized by the formation of lesions in the colon as well as in the bowel typically in the submucosal layer.
The submucosal layer of the bowel takes the appearance of the cobblestone due to formation of the fissures and crevices also surrounded by the submucosal edema.
A clinician is assessing the muscle tone of a patient who has been diagnosed with a lower motor neuron (LMN) lesion. Which of the following assessment findings is congruent with the patient's diagnosis?
a. Hypotonia
b. Spasticity
c. Tetany
d. Rigidity
Answer:
a.Hypotonic
Explanation:
Lower motor neurons refer to the spinal and cranial motor neurons that directly innervate skeletal muscles.
When injury occurs to lower parts of the motor system , such as motor systems or their axons , deficits may be well localized. If the motor nerve to a muscle is damaged , that muscle develop paresis or complete paralysis. If their motor nerves are transected ,muscles become flaccid (atonia ) and eventually develops atrophy.
Damage to these neurons is associated with :
1) Flaccid paralysis
2) Muscle atrophy
3) Fasciculations
4) Hypotonia
5) Hyporeflexia.
Hence option A is the right answer.
A study seeks to determine if fish oil is effective at preventing heart attacks. Scientists interview 200 people and ask about heart attacks in the past 3 years. 120 people take fish oil regularly, whereas the 80 who do not take fish oil are referred to as the "control group." The above is an example of _________.
Answer:
An epidemiological study.
Explanation:
Epidemiology may be defined as the sub field of immunology that mainly deals with the study of the particular disease especially in the group of population of human beings.
The epidemiology includes the main reason of the disease, its cause and its medication. In the given example, the scientists study about the heart rate incident in the population. Later, the regular effect of the fish oil is also noticed in the population. This study clearly indicates the epidemiological study.
Thus, the correct answer is epidemiological study.
Answer:
An epidemiological study.
Explanation:
HIPPA violation, example: Martha and Kelly are technicians at the hospital. In the cafeteria, they discuss a client's case. They talk about his physical description and use his doctor's name. Another person in the cafeteria overhears the talk.
Answer:
Yes
Explanation:
The main distinction between medical doctors and osteopaths is that osteopathic medicine places special emphasis on the body's _____ system, preventive medicine, and holistic care.
Answer:
musculoskeletal system
Explanation:
Osteopathic medicine -
It is the specific branch of the medicine , which focus on the interrelated unity of the system in the body i.e. , the musculoskeletal system , is referred to as the Osteopathic medicine .
The people working on the Osteopathic medicine are referred to as the osteopaths .
Hence , from the given information of the question ,
The correct term is musculoskeletal system .
Answer:
musculoskeletal system
Explanation:
Jameela is an Iranian woman living in poverty. She is not seen in public places without being covered almost completely in heavy veils. Her usual diet is comprised of legumes, small amounts of yogurt, whole-grain breads and rice, fruits, and a few vegetables. Based on this information, Jameela is most at risk of ___________.
Answer:
osteomalacia
Explanation:
From the question, we have the following information: the woman --Jameela is poor and her diet "comprised of legumes, small amounts of yogurt, whole-grain breads and rice, fruits, and a few vegetables". Which shows that the woman has less of calcium and Phosphates in her food. Also, she is not always seen in the public and when you see her she is always in ''heavy veils" which means that she does not also allow her self to be giving the Nature natural vitamin D from the morning sun.
So, it can be concluded that Jameela is at risk of having osteomalacia if she continues this way. Osteomalacia is when someone has bones that are not strong dues to the small amount of vitamin D and some minerals such as calcium.
Answer:
she is suffering from osteomalacia. It is majorly a Vit D deficiency condition.
Explanation:
Based on her diet, she consumed less of food rich in Vitamin D, phosphate, Calcium, ( that is less of yogurt, no egg, milk, fish, or cheese,) and few vegetables.
She was did not expose herself to sunlight. She shielded sunlight with veils blocking UV. Therefore more deficiency in Vit D. This is responsible for 80% of her condition.
Rather she consumed more of Carbohydrate, fibres. Therefore there is imbalance in her bone mineralization.
Vit. D is needed for absorbing Calcium and Phosphate ions from the wall of the intestine into the blood stream for bone mineralization and strengthening (as Calciumphospahte). Therefore , with a diet low in Vitamin D, Ca, and phosphate, and failure to absorbed the little available from the intestine to the bone tissue for bone mineralization and hardening , the bone will not be hard, but soft.
The condition where most especially Vit,D metabolism , calcium and phosphate of the bone is disrupted,from insufficient supply to the bone, leading to softening of the bone tissues is called Osteomalacia. It is known as rickets in kids.
,
According to some researchers, cognitive development continues beyond Piaget's formal operational stage to the __________ level.
Answer:
Postformal thought
Explanation:
__________ involves integration of assessment information and the formation of hypotheses about what drives someone to behave in problematic ways. It also involves identifying the thoughts and behaviors that should form treatment targets to result in the most robust improvements.
Answer:
Psychological assessment
Explanation:
Psychological assessment is a process of testing that uses a combination of techniques to help arrive at some hypotheses about a person and their behavior, personality and capabilities.
Dr. McCoy is attempting to determine the zone of proximal development for Jim when Jim works on complex mazes. In order to do so, Dr. McCoy must measure Jim’s personal performance on the maze and __________.
Answer:
Dinn's maze performance when assisted by a skilled helper
Explanation:
The zone of proximal development is defined as the distance that exist between the level of actual development obtained from independent problem solving the the potential development level, obtained from solving a problem under guidance by an adult or when collaborating with peers that are capable to solve the problem. Hence to determine the zone of proximal development, Dr Mc Coy must measure Jim’s personal performance on the maze and his maze performance when assisted by a skilled helper.
Of the two forms of unipolar depression (major depressive disorder and persistent depressive disorder), the lifetime prevalence for both combined is about ________ percent of the general population.a. 3.5 b. 6.2 c. 8.6 d. 9.3
Answer:
The correct option is A: 3.5 percent
Explanation:
The lifetime prevalence of a disease is simply the ration of a population that have been hit by a particular disease or health event, or those that are at risk of having the disease or health event over the general population. The lifetime prevalence of major depressive disorder and persistent depressive disorder combined, with the latter having a lower lifetime prevalence is 3.5%.
According to ACSM, tests allowing fewer than ______ repetitions before momentary muscle fatigue measure muscular strength, whereas those that require more than _____ repetitions measure local muscular endurance
Answer:
3, 12
Explanation:
According to ACSM, tests allowing fewer than 3 repetitions before momentary muscle fatigue measure muscular strength, whereas those that require more than 12 repetitions measure local muscular endurance. For muscular endurance Dynamic Repetition is always advised, where you repeat a particular test more than 12 repetition, where as for strength it is expected to do repetition one to three times.
Which of the following is a positive statement?
A. Nelly’s dog should lose some weight.
B. Legally requiring dogs to have rabies shots will reduce the number of rabid dogs.
C. Nelly should take her dog to the veterinarian once a year for a check up.
D. Chihuahuas are cuter than bulldogs.
E. All dogs should be required to wear leashes at all times.
Answer:
The correct option is B) Legally requiring dogs to have rabies shots will reduce the number of rabid dogs.
Explanation:
A positive statement can be described as a statement which described what is, was or will be. These kinds of statements are based on empirical evidence. In simple words, a positive statement can be described as a statement which is made based upon facts.
As the statement B, Legally requiring dogs to have rabies shots will reduce the number of rabid dogs, is based on facts and described what will be hence, it is an example of a positive statement.
If Lisa had family members with a history of schizophrenia and at a point in life she was exposed to severe environmental stressors, she may be likely to develop schizophrenia according to the ______ explanation of the cause of abnormal behavior.
Answer:
diathesis–stress model
Explanation:
According to the diathesis–stress model, disorders such as schizophrenia develops from the combination of the genetic or biological tendency of schizophrenia to arise combined with factors such as environmental stressor which facilitates its development. Cortisol production in the body is influenced by stress, which in combination with the fact that Lisa has a genetic tendency for developing the disorder, would trigger the symptoms of schizophrenia.
Answer:
diathesis–stress model
Explanation:
There has been a fire in an apartment building, and it has spread to seven apartment units. Victims have suffered burns, minor injuries, and broken bones from jumping from windows. Which persons can be safely treated at the scene and transported to a health care facility after victims with more emergent problems have been transported first?
a. female client who is 5 months pregnant with no apparent injuries
b. male who is 50 years of age with no injuries, rapid respirations, and coughing
c. a child who is 10 years of age with an apparent simple fracture of the humerus
d. female who is 20 years of age with first-degree burns on hands and forearms
e. male who is 75 years of age with second-degree burns on both legs
After victims with more emergent problems have been transported first, the persons who can be safely treated at the scene and transported to a healthcare facility are a pregnant female with no apparent injuries, a 50-year-old male with rapid respirations and coughing, and a 20-year-old female with first-degree burns on hands and forearms.
Explanation:After victims with more emergent problems have been transported first, the persons who can be safely treated at the scene and transported to a healthcare facility are:
Female client who is 5 months pregnant with no apparent injuries: Although she doesn't have any apparent injuries, it is important to have her evaluated by healthcare professionals to ensure the safety of both her and the unborn child.Male who is 50 years of age with no injuries, rapid respirations, and coughing: This individual should be assessed by healthcare professionals to determine the cause of the rapid respirations and coughing.Female who is 20 years of age with first-degree burns on hands and forearms: This person's first-degree burns can be treated at the scene and they can be transported to a healthcare facility for further evaluation and care.Assume that a girl who is exactly 12 years old has a weight of 100 pounds and a height of 5 feet 2 inches. What is her BMI?
18.3
Explanation:
The BMI is 18.3. This is a healthy weight and height for a female at 12.
Which of the following terms best describes the body's ability to perform physical activities on a regular basis without getting too tired and with energy left over to handle physical and mental emergencies?
a. body composition
b. muscular strength
c. aerobic capacity
d. physical fitness