Answer:B
Explanation:
Among the options provided, seed banks are not considered an ecosystem service. Seed banks are human-created for biodiversity conservation and differ from natural ecosystem services like pollination or soil fertility maintenance.
The question asks: Which of the following is not an ecosystem service? An ecosystem service is a process or a product of natural systems that benefits humans in some way, such as through the provisioning of food, water, or air purification. The options provided are: A. decomposition, B. seed banks, C. pollination, D. maintenance of soil fertility, E. prevention of soil erosion.
Among these, seed banks (option B) are not considered an ecosystem service in the same manner as the others listed. Seed banks are human-made repositories where seeds are stored for conservation and agricultural purposes. Unlike decomposition, pollination, maintenance of soil fertility, and prevention of soil erosion, seed banks do not directly result from natural ecosystem processes but are instead a tool for conserving biodiversity.
Ecosystem services such as pollination, maintenance of soil fertility, and prevention of soil erosion are critical for supporting food production, regulating the environment, and maintaining biodiversity. These processes occur naturally and provide significant benefits to human societies, showcasing the inherent value of preserving and maintaining healthy ecosystems.
Corn lacks the essential amino acids isoleucine and lysine. Beans lack the essential amino acids tryptophan and methionine. Soy contains all the essential amino acids. Use this information to complete the following statement: Many traditional diets combine corn (e.g., tortillas) with beans to provide ________.a. all the essential fatsb. all the essential amino acidsc. all the essential fats and additional micronutrientsd. multivitaminse. additional micronutrients
Answer: Option B) all the essential amino acids
Many traditional diets combine corn (e.g., tortillas) with beans to provide all the essential amino acids
Explanation:
Corn with beans is regarded as rich diet because it provides the body with all the essential amino acids including isoleucine, lysine, tryptophan and methionine, just as found in Soy.
Thus, option B is the answer
Final answer:
Many traditional diets combine corn and beans to provide all the essential amino acids, compensating for the deficiencies each has individually. This illustrates the concept of complementary proteins, crucial for balanced nutrition in plant-based diets.
Explanation:
Many traditional diets combine corn (e.g., tortillas) with beans to provide all the essential amino acids. Corn lacks the essential amino acids isoleucine and lysine, while beans lack tryptophan and methionine. By combining these two plant sources, one can obtain a balanced intake of essential amino acids, similar to that provided by complete protein sources like soy. This combination exemplifies the concept of complementary proteins, where two or more plant sources together provide a full profile of essential amino acids. This practice is crucial particularly for vegetarians or those on restricted diets to ensure they receive a balanced nutrient intake. Traditional diets intuitively incorporate this knowledge, highlighting the importance of dietary diversity especially in plant-based nutrition.
The Hawaiian state bird, the Nene, has an uncertain evolutionary history. It is thought that it has evolved from some other type of goose that was blown to the islands during a typhoon. Genomics would be most appropriate for addressing which research question regarding the Nene?
Answer:
It will address the research question of what type of goose (species) does the Nene evolved from.
Explanation:
Genomics uses the whole set of an organisms DNA to study and understand its' function, structure, and evolution. Scientists will use the Nene's genome set to study its evolution,basically telling a story where it comes from.
Which characteristic feature of a drug may increase the likelihood of drug transfer through breast milk?
Answer:
Size of the drug molecule
Maternal plasma concentration
Degree of ionisation
Explanation:
Size of the drug molecule
Most drug molecules, including alcohol, nicotine and caffeine, are small enough to enter milk. Exceptions are drugs with high molecular weights such as heparins and insulin.
Maternal plasma concentration
Passive diffusion is the primary pathway by which drugs enter milk. There is a good concordance between the time-course of maternal plasma-drug concentration and milk-drug concentration. Maternal plasma concentration is also affected by the drug’s distribution into different tissues. A high volume of distribution (as for sertraline) will contribute to a lower maternal plasma concentration and a subsequent lower concentration in milk.
Degree of ionisation
Drugs cross membranes in an un-ionised form. Milk is generally slightly more acidic (pH 7.2) than the mother’s plasma (pH 7.4) so it attracts weak organic bases such as oxycodone and codeine.7 Such drugs become ionised and ‘trapped’ in the milk. Conversely, weak organic acids such as penicillin tend to be ionised and held in maternal plasma.
A/An ________ is a location column that receives information about all possible orientations within a given area of the retina.
Answer:
hypercolumn
Explanation:
The hypercoloumn consists of a group of neurons in the cortex of the brain that receives information of an object from the left and the right eye and interprets the orientation of such objects. The hypercolumn which are located across the surface of the primary visual cortex allows us to see objects or pictures as one as presented in a given area of the retina. The hypercolumn can also be referred to as cortical column.
The B vitamins act as parts of: a. anticoagulants b. coenzymes c. antibodies d. the bone matrix e. intrinsic factors
B vitamins primarily serve as coenzymes, assisting in various biochemical reactions within our body. They do not serve directly as anticoagulants, antibodies, elements of the bone matrix, or intrinsic factors.
Explanation:The B vitamins, which include vitamins B1, B2, B3, B5, B6, B7, B9 and B12, primarily serve as coenzymes. This means that they act as helpers in various biochemical reactions inside our body, facilitating the process of converting food into energy. Hence, from the options provided, B vitamins act as parts of coenzymes. They don't directly serve as anticoagulants, antibodies, parts of the bone matrix, or intrinsic factors.
Learn more about B vitamins here:https://brainly.com/question/32145836
#SPJ6
B vitamins function as part of coenzymes, which are substances needed for many biochemical reactions, including energy metabolism and the synthesis of new cells. They are not part of anticoagulants, antibodies, the bone matrix, or intrinsic factors.
Explanation:The B vitamins serve as parts of coenzymes. Coenzymes are substances, including vitamins like B and folate, which are instrumental in various biochemical reactions in the body. Some, such as the B vitamins, play a large role in energy metabolism and the synthesis of new cells, including erythrocytes (red blood cells).
For example, the trace mineral zinc functions as a coenzyme that facilitates the synthesis of the heme portion of hemoglobin, which is needed to transport oxygen in the blood. Similarly, folate and vitamin B12 act as coenzymes for DNA synthesis, thus, they are vital for cell reproduction.
Vitamins are necessary parts of many biochemical reactions in our bodies. They are involved in many processes including mineral and bone metabolism, and cell and tissue growth. Therefore, B vitamins do not serve as anticoagulants, antibodies, bone matrix, or intrinsic factors but are part of the coenzymes which facilitate numerous essential biochemical reactions.
Learn more about B Vitamins as Coenzymes here:https://brainly.com/question/32500786
#SPJ5
A sample of adults with generalized anxiety disorder are participating in a Stroop task in which threat-related words are presented in different colors on a computer screen. As compared with adults without an anxiety disorder, the sample should take __________.
Answer:
The sample will take longer to name the colors of the words
Explanation:
It is normal to feel anxious once in a while. However people with Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) are constantly worried, restless and have trouble concentrating.
The Stroop task is a psychological test where name of a color is written with a different ink. This will cause a delay in response time due to mismatch of stimuli.
Therefore, the sample which consists of adults with GAD will take longer to name the colors of the words.
The LPN/LVN cares for a client newly diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia. The client tells the LPN/LVN, "There are really strange people in the corner of my room laughing at me and saying horrible things." Which of the following responses by the LPN/LVN is MOST appropriate?
1. "I don't see anything, and you really have nothing to be ashamed of."
2. "I don't hear the voices, but this seems to be frightening you."
3. "What are they saying to you?"
4. "Sometimes when people are upset, their imagination plays tricks on them."
Answer:
4. "Sometimes when people are upset, their imagination plays tricks on them."
When Jackie experienced her fourth miscarriage and was soon after diagnosed with cervical cancer, her doctor asked if she knew anything about her mother's pregnancy with her. The doctor likely suspects that the drug __________ is behind Jackie's problemss
Explanation:
Diethylstilboestrol, commonly known as DES or thalidomide was widely prescribed as an anti-miscarriage drug for 30 years between 1943 and 1973.
The production and sale of this drug was banned due to its carcinogenic side effects. It was also discovered that the effects of this drug can also manifest themselves in people whose mothers were administered with the drug.
If Jackie's mother consumed DES while she was pregnant with Jackie,, It is probable that Jackie's miscarriages and her cancer are an indirect effect of the banned drug.
Five-year-old Lilah is beginning to show signs of being able to plan ahead in a somewhat rational manner. At her age, this development is likely due to neural networks sprouting in her _____ lobe.
Answer:
ear
Explanation:
Final answer:
Lilah's ability to plan ahead is associated with the development of neural networks in her frontal lobe, which rapidly grows and develops during early childhood and is responsible for advanced cognitive functions.
Explanation:
Five-year-old Lilah is beginning to show signs of being able to plan ahead in a somewhat rational manner. At her age, this development is likely due to neural networks sprouting in her frontal lobe. The size of the brain increases rapidly during early childhood, and by age six, it reaches approximately 90% of its adult size. During the ages of 3 to 6, the frontal lobes, in particular, grow rapidly and are responsible for planning, reasoning, memory, and impulse control. These lobes are still developing throughout adolescence, and their growth is closely connected with cognitive advancements following Piaget's sequence of cognitive development. The process is aided by the development of myelin, which serves to insulate nerve cells and speed up impulse transmission, thus enhancing neural pathways and cognitive functions such as planning and coordination.
The diagram below shows a strand of DNA matched to a strand of messenger RNA.
What process does this diagram represent?
Select one:
a. mutation
b. transcription
c. respiration
d. translation
b. Transcription process does this diagram represent.
What is a DNA strand comprised of?DNA is made up of basic building components known as nucleotides. These building blocks are composed of three components: a phosphate group, a sugar group, and one of four kinds of nitrogen bases. Nucleotides are joined into chains and their phosphate and sugar groups alternate to produce a DNA strand.
DNA is made up of two connected strands that loop around each other to form a twisted ladder — a configuration known as a double helix. Each strand contains a backbone composed of alternating sugars (deoxyribose) and purines. Each sugar has one of four bases attached to it: adenine (A), cytosine (C), guanine (G), or thymine (T).
Learn more about DNA refer
https://brainly.com/question/16099437
#SPJ2
There is a mutation in the operator of the lac operon in a cell such that the lac repressor always stays bound to the operator. If lactose is added to the cell, what will happen?
Answer:
Yes, if there is a mutation in the operator of the lac operon in a cell such that the lac repressor always stays bound to the operator. If lactose is added to the cell, the lac repressor loses its ability to bind DNA. It clear off the operator, clearing the way for RNA polymerase to transcribe the operon.
The energy released is trapped in the form of ATP (Links to an external site.) for use by all the energy-consuming activities of the cell. The process occurs in two phases: glycolysis, the breakdown of glucose to pyruvic acid the complete oxidation of pyruvic acidto carbon dioxide and water. Fermation is the chemical breakdown of a substance by bacteria, yeasts, or other microorganisms, typically involving effervescence and the giving off of heat. the process of fermentation involved in the making of beer, wine, and liquor, in which sugars are converted to ethyl alcohol.
ATP is used and released during the metabolic processes.
Explanation:
In the process of Respiration, a glucose molecule is eventually broken down into carbon dioxide and water. During this process, some ATP is produced directly in the reactions that transform glucose. However, more ATP is produced later in a process called oxidative phosphorylation.
Oxidative phosphorylation takes place by the movement of electrons through the electron transport chain, a series of proteins embedded in the inner membrane of the mitochondrion.
Fermentation process takes place when the availability of oxygen is less. In this process glucose instead of converting into CO2 and water gets converted into lactic acid or any other alcohol.
Jack and Jill have been studying a population of lizards on a hillside for over three decades. Throughout this time, they have noticed that some of the lizards have begun to eat vegetation, but the majority of the population continues to eat insects. Based on what you know about natural selection, what do you predict will happen?
Answer:
These few lizards who eat vegetation will be able to survive and reproduce better than those who eat insects. Since for the most part don't have to compete for resources with other lizards they have a better chance for survival than those who eat insects.
The lizards observed by Jack and Jill, some of which have begun to eat vegetation, might be undergoing an evolutionary adaptation due to natural selection. If the vegetation-eating trait offers a survival and reproductive advantage, we can expect an increase in the proportion of vegetation-eating lizards over generations, assuming environmentally favorable conditions for this trait.
Based on what we know about natural selection, the adjustments observed in the lizard population on a hillside where some have begun to eat vegetation while most continue to eat insects suggest the beginning of an evolutionary adaptation process. Natural selection operates on the principle that individuals with traits better suited for their environment are more likely to survive, reproduce, and pass these advantageous traits to their offspring. Over time, this can lead to significant changes within a population, ultimately resulting in the evolution of the species to better adapt to its environment.
In the case of Jack and Jill's lizards, if the vegetation-eating behavior proves to be an advantageous trait (for instance, if insect populations decline or competition for insects increases), we can predict that the number of vegetation-eating lizards will progressively increase over future generations. This increase would occur because these lizards would have a survival and reproductive advantage over those that rely solely on insects for food. Conversely, should the environment not favor this trait, the impact on the population may be minimal.
It's essential to consider additional factors such as mutation, migration, and the role of genetic variation in this process. Natural selection does not act in isolation but in concert with these factors to shape the evolutionary path of a species.
Based on radiometric dating, the oldest rocks scientists have found on Earth are 4.6 billion years old, but not ALL rocks are that old. Why might some rocks be 4.6 billion years old, and other rocks are only 2 billion years old, while yet others are only a few thousands years old?
Answer:
The answer to your question is below
Explanation:
Because similar to living things, some rocks are formed and it takes a long period to degrade them. During this period new rocks are born, some of these rocks can react with some compounds of the environment and can form new rocks or can be degraded.
What I try to say is that rock formation takes a lot of time and while some rocks disappear new rocks are created.
Final answer:
Radiometric dating is used to determine the age of rocks on Earth. The age of a rock is determined by the isotopes present in the rock and their decay rate. Through this method, scientists have found that the oldest rocks on Earth are around 4.6 billion years old, but not all rocks are that old.
Explanation:
Radiometric dating is used to determine the age of rocks on Earth. Through this method, scientists have found that the oldest rocks on Earth are around 4.6 billion years old. However, not all rocks are that old. Some rocks may only be 2 billion years old, while others may be only a few thousand years old.
The reason for this variation in rock ages is due to the process of rock formation and geological events that have occurred over time. Rocks are formed through different processes such as volcanic activity, metamorphism, and sedimentation. The age of a rock is determined by the isotopes present in the rock and their decay rate.
For example, radioactive isotopes such as uranium-238 decay at a predictable rate to form daughter isotopes. By measuring the ratio of parent and daughter isotopes in a rock, scientists can calculate its age. The older rocks would have higher ratios of daughter isotopes, indicating a longer period of decay.
You discover a new virus. It has a single stranded + sense RNA genome. It uses a special enzyme to convert the RNA genome into double stranded DNA. Transcription of mRNA is carried out from the DS DNA template. Which group in the Baltimore classification system would you place this virus into?
Answer:
Group VI viruses (retroviruses)
Explanation:
Baltimore classified the viruses in different groups on the basis of their mode of replication and the type of genetic material they possess.
In the given question, the species which contains an ssRNA molecule but use DNA as an intermediate molecule to replicate is known as a retrovirus.
The retrovirus uses a special enzyme called reverse transcriptase which synthesizes the DNA from an RNA template. The DNA formed gets integrated into the host genome and gets replicated.
Thus, Group VI viruses are the correct answer.
Jane was involved in an automobile accident in which both her parents were killed. When you ask her about it, she says she has no memory of the accident. What ego defense mechanism is she using?
Answer:
The correct answer is- repression
Explanation:
There are many types of defense mechanism like repression, denial, projection, displacement, regression, etc. Repression is an unconscious defense mechanism that is ego employed to keep out the bad and threatening thought to come in mind.
So here when Jane is asked about the accident she says that she is not having any memory about the accident which shows that she is using repression as an ego defense mechanism to avoid that disturbing thought of accident to become conscious.
There are a number of lipids that are found in foods and contribute to various functions in the body. Triglycerides are the most common lipid found in food and in the body; they consist of a ____________ backbone attached to three fatty acids.
Fatty acids are classified based on the degree to which the carbon chain is saturated with ________
A fatty acid is ____________ if it contains no carbon-carbon double bonds, ____________ if it contains
two or more carbon-carbon double bonds, and ____________ if it has only one carbon-carbon double bond.
The unsaturated fatty acids can exist in one of two structural forms: the ____________ form occurs when hydrogens on both carbons forming the double bond lie on opposite sides of that bond.
When hydrogens on an unsaturated fatty acid lie on the same side of the carbon-carbon double bond, a ____________ formation exists.
Answer:
There are a number of lipids that are found in foods and contribute to various functions in the body. Triglycerides are the most common lipid found in food and in the body; they consist of a Glycerol backbone attached to three fatty acids.
Fatty acids are classified based on the degree to which the carbon chain is saturated with Hydrogen
A fatty acid is saturated if it contains no carbon-carbon double bonds, polyunsaturated if it contains two or more carbon-carbon double bonds, and monounsaturated if it has only one carbon-carbon double bond.
The unsaturated fatty acids can exist in one of two structural forms: the trans form occurs when hydrogens on both carbons forming the double bond lie on opposite sides of that bond.
When hydrogens on an unsaturated fatty acid lie on the same side of the carbon-carbon double bond, a cis formation exists.
A middle-aged client with a 30-year history of smoking was diagnosed with lung cancer. A health history revealed previous exposure to air pollution, asbestos, and radiation. Which of the following most likely had the greatest impact on development of the lung cancer?
Radiation
Cigarette smoke
Asbestos
Air pollution
Answer:
The correct answer is- cigarette smoke
Explanation:
Cigarette contains tobacco and tobacco contains 7000 chemical out of which 250 are harmful and 69 are cancer-causing. People who smoke cigarettes are at 15-30 times higher risk of getting lung cancer than a person who does not smoke a cigarette.
So as a middle-aged client has a 30-year history of smoking therefore smoking is most likely had the greatest impact on the development of lung cancer. Therefore the correct answer is cigarette smoke.
Answer: Cigarette smoking
Explanation:
The cigarette smoking is most likely the `reason for the person to suffer from lung cancer.
The smoke of the cigarette is very harmful as it can damage the lungs. The cigarette consists of tobacco which contains many carcinogenic agents in it.
Being exposed to radiation, asbestos and pollution is less harmful as compared to the smoke of the cigarettes.
The client who has a history and is susceptible to the lung cancer should keep a distance from cigarette smoking.
what is the substance found in many plants that is not considered a nutrient but has many healthful benefits?
Answer:
The correct answer is phytochemicals.
Explanation:
Phytochemicals refer to the components, which are generated by plants. They are witnessed in vegetables, fruits, beans, grains, and other plants. Some of these phytochemicals are considered to protect cells from destruction, which could result in cancer. The phytochemicals are not considered as nutrients, but possesses many health benefits:
1. It helps in ceasing carcinogens from attacking cells.
2. It helps to prevent the generation of potential cancer-resulting substances.
3. It assists the cells to prevent and eradicate any kind of cancer-like modifications.
Some of the phytochemicals, which are considered as the most beneficial ones are polyphenols in tea, beta-carotene and other carotenoids in vegetables and fruits, and isothiocyanates found in cruciferous vegetables.
If you cross an albino(g) female whose father was grey(G), with a grey male whose mother was albino(g), what are the possible genotypes are there among the offspring?
Answer:
2 possible genotypes, Gg and gg are among the offspring.
Explanation:
In monohybrid, making cross an albino female (g), whose father was gray (G), with a gray male, whose mother was albino
G g
g Gg gg
g Gg gg
Genotypes: ½ Gg and ½ gg
Phenotypes: ½ Gray and ½ albino
Both offspring will have a 50 percent chance of heterozygous and homozygous.
The possible genotypes of offspring from a cross between an albino female (gg) and a grey male (Gg) are Gg (grey) and gg (albino), with a phenotypic ratio of 1 grey:1 albino.
Possible Genotypes of Offspring from Crosses Involving Albinism
When determining the possible genotypes of offspring with one albino parent and one grey parent, we need to consider the pattern of inheritance for the albinism trait, which is typically recessive. Assuming that 'G' represents the dominant grey allele and 'g' represents the recessive albino allele, and knowing the parental genotypes, we can set up a Punnett square to predict the possible genotypes of the offspring.
The female albino (gg) must pass on a 'g' allele to all offspring. The grey male, whose mother was albino, must be heterozygous (Gg) as he exhibits the grey phenotype but carries the recessive albino allele. When we cross a gg female with a Gg male, the possible genotypes of their offspring are Gg (grey) and gg (albino). Thus, there is a 50% chance for an offspring to be grey and a 50% chance for an offspring to be albino. There is no chance for offspring to be GG as the grey female does not have a G allele to contribute.
The phenotypic ratio of the offspring from this cross would be 1 grey:1 albino, assuming no other genetic interactions affect the expression of the grey and albino phenotypes.
An EMT is confronted by an armed gunman who is threatening to kill the EMT and his partner. An elevation in the EMT's heart rate and blood occurs in which stage of the body's response to stress?
Answer:
The correct answer is alarm reaction stage.
Explanation:
The alarm reaction stage signifies towards the beginning of the symptoms, which the body encounters at the time of stress. As one knows about the fight or flight response, which is a physiological reaction towards stress. This reaction enables one to either flee or protect oneself in dangerous conditions.
In the condition, the heart rate enhances, the adrenal gland discharges a stress hormone known as cortisol, and one gets a boost of adrenaline that enhances energy. This fight-or-flight response takes place in the alarm reaction stage.
Final answer:
An increase in heart rate and blood pressure during a stressful encounter like facing an armed gunman represents the alarm reaction stage of the general adaptation syndrome or fight-or-flight response, mediated by epinephrine and norepinephrine.
Explanation:
An elevation in the EMT's heart rate and blood pressure occurs in the alarm reaction stage of the body's response to stress, also known as the fight-or-flight response. This response is mediated by the hormones epinephrine and norepinephrine from the adrenal medulla via the Sympatho-Adreno-Medullary (SAM) pathway. The function of these hormones is to prepare the body for extreme physical exertion in potentially life-threatening situations. Once the stress is relieved, the body quickly returns to normal.
As a result of stress, the anterior pituitary releases ________, which stimulates release of hormones from the adrenal cortex that retain sodium and water, increase blood sugar, and begin breaking down fats.A) thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)B) growth hormoneC) ADH D) ACTH
Answer:
ACTH
Explanation:
Corticotrophs from anterior pituitary gland secretes adrenocorticotropic hormone under stress conditions. ACTH stimulates the cortex of the adrenal gland to secrete glucocorticoids. Cortisol is the main glucocorticoid secreted by the adrenal cortex. This hormone triggers the break down of fats and proteins as well as stimulate gluconeogenesis. All these physiological responses prepare the body to combat stress or emergency conditions.
Answer: Option D) ACTH is the he correct answer.
Explanation: Corticotropin-releasing hormone and vasopressin are responsible for the release of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), which in result have effect on the release of hormone from adrenal cortex.
Cortisol is the hormone produce in response of ACTH effect on adrenal cortex. In the condition of stress; metabolic effects, nervous system effects are produced.
A 78 year old grandmother presents for eval of weakness in her face. She has a longstanding history of HTN that has been under fair control. On physical exam you note that she has ptosis and miosis of the left eye and left facial anhidrosis. What is your most likely diagnosis?
A) Horner's syndrome
B) Anisocoria
C) Acute angle-closure glaucoma
D) Myasthenia gravis
Answer:
A) Horner's syndrome
Explanation:
Horner's syndrome:
Horner syndrome occurs due to damage of nerve pathway from brain to eye and face.
In this condition particularly damage one side of the face and eye of the patient.
Symptoms:
Its symptoms include:
Miosis (pupil will become small)ptosis (upper eyelid will drooping)anisocoria (pupil size will be physically different between two eyes)anhidrosis (there will be no sweating or little in rare cases)So, The above mentioned condition proves the presence of Horner's syndrome.
Gjabolla has been suffering from a terrible fear of lightning for some time now. Whenever there are storms in the weather forecast, she gets very upset and plans on spending the duration of that time in her basement. She has even called in sick to work to avoid going out during a bad thunderstorm. How long would these symptoms have to persist before a diagnosis of a specific phobia could be made?
Answer:
6 months
Explanation:
A phobia can be described as a condition in which a person faces severe anxiety for a certain event or object that he observes. The person might behave irrationally when he/she observes the fearful event or object. Although a person completely understands that he is behaving irrationally after encountering the problematic situation, however he cannot control himself at the time when he experiences the situation. Psychologists diagnose phobia when a person continuously fears a situation for more a period of six or more months.
During the last decade, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service has worked to reestablish the critically endangered California condor in its last stronghold, the mountains of southern California. Recently, the service has also tried to establish a second population in the Grand Canyon region of Arizona. Why would the Fish and Wildlife Service consider it a high priority to establish two populations that are geographically distant from each other
• Multiple condor populations reduce inbreeding.
• Multiple condor populations provide more opportunities for people to view the endangered species, which may cause more people to be concerned with its fate.
• Multiple condor populations reduce genetic drift within each population.
• Multiple condor populations reduce the risk of extinction due to localized catastrophes
Answer:
The correct answer is D. "Multiple condor populations reduce the risk of extinction due to localized catastrophes".
Explanation:
In 1975, The California Condor Recovery Plan was prepared by the California Cóndor Recovery Team integrated by the National Audubon Society, the U.S. California Department of Fish and Game, The Forest Service, the U.S. Bureau of Land Management, and the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service or Usfws.
The objective of this recovery plan was to maintain and keep a population of 50 condors distributed in the same areas as they used to inhabit in 1974, with a rate of 4 birth per year and the less possible mortality rate.
They supposed that if condors were widely geographically distributed, then not all of them would be under the same limiting local pressures, even possible catastrophes. If the annual birth rate was equal or higher than the mortality rate then a little population would be able to survive. Finally, if the species was in extinction danger state and under an extensive managing program, populations could recover their stability.
They were focused on protecting the nesting areas, protecting the feeding areas and preventing mortality.
Most water-soluble hormones exert their effects through the second messenger cyclic AMP (cAMP). This activity will test your understanding of the events that occur during cAMP signaling. Drag the events of cAMP signaling in the correct sequence from left to right.
Answer:
cAMP dependent pathway is important for processing of life.
Explanation:
cAMP pathway is also called as adenynyl cyclase pathway.
This mechanism requires different steps like-
G protein coupled receptor is a integral protein that is activated by different external stimuli which binds with the specific ligand.Extracellular ligand causes activation of GPCR which in turn is responsible for conformational change in the receptor and allows it to bind with the intracellular heterotrimeric G protein complex.The Gα stimulate G protein complex to exchange GDP for GTP and then the complex is released.Activated Gα binds with adenylate cyclase and catalyzes ATP to form cyclic AMP.Activation of cAMP leads to the activation of nucleotide gated ion channel, and PKa(Protein kinase A) which is also called as cAMP dependent enzyme.Once, PKA is activated,it causes phospholylation of other proteins like AMPA receptor,transcription factors which regulate gene expression, and convert glycogen into glucose.The central principle of therapeutic massage is that the body's soft tissues will function optimally when the circulatory and lymphatic systems are unimpeded. true or false
Answer: True
Explanation:
The central principle of the therapeutic massage is that body's soft tissues will function more properly if the lymphatic system and the circulatory system of the body will not be hindered.
The better the blood flow the better will be the supply of oxygen to the various parts and organs of the body that helps in better function of body.
The clots or hindrance in these systems can result in pain and numbness in the different parts of the body.
"The statement is true. The central principle of therapeutic massage is indeed based on the belief that the body's soft tissues will function optimally when the circulatory and lymphatic systems are unimpeded.
Therapeutic massage is a form of bodywork that aims to improve the function of the body's soft tissues, which include muscles, tendons, ligaments, and fascia. The goal is to promote relaxation, reduce muscle tension and soreness, improve circulation, and enhance the body's natural healing processes.
The circulatory system is responsible for delivering oxygen and nutrients to tissues and removing waste products. By improving circulation through massage, the body's cells can function more efficiently, which can lead to faster recovery from injuries and better overall health.
The lymphatic system is a crucial part of the immune system and helps to remove toxins and waste from the body. Unlike the circulatory system, the lymphatic system does not have a pump to move lymph fluid; instead, it relies on muscle movement and manual manipulation, such as massage, to facilitate lymph flow.
By applying various techniques, such as effleurage, petrissage, and tapotement, massage therapists can stimulate blood flow and lymphatic drainage, thereby helping to reduce swelling and improve immune function. This unimpeded flow in both systems is believed to contribute to the body's ability to maintain health and recover from injury or illness
Nelson has been blind since birth. However, an fMRI of his brain shows intense activity in his visual cortex when he is reading Braille. How can this activity be explained?
Explanation:
" I Don't know about it , ,. , , , , x x , ,b, , , , ,
Animal tissues _____.
a. are composed of undifferentiated cells
b. are joined with each other by nerve cells
c. do not necessarily have specific functions
d. contain relatively small amounts of fluid
e. are organized into organs
Answer:
e
Explanation:
because it organized According
from tissue to organ from organ to system
Final answer:
Animal tissues are organized into organs, consisting of epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous tissues that carry out specialized functions within the body.
Explanation:
The question asks about the nature of animal tissues. To answer it: animal tissues are organized into organs. This is because the tissues of multicellular, complex animals are four primary types: epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous tissues. These tissues are groups of similar cells carrying out related functions. They combine to form organs, such as the skin or kidney, which have specific, specialized functions within the body. Furthermore, organs are organized into organ systems like the circulatory system, comprising the heart and blood vessels, and the digestive system, which includes the stomach, intestines, liver, and pancreas. These organ systems work together to sustain the organism as an entire living being.
On a hike through the forest, you notice a population of 100 flowering plants that all look identical (phenotypic clones), and they span an area of approximately 100 square meters. You take some representatives from one corner of their distribution back to the lab, sequence their DNA, and conclude that they are also genetic clones (i.e. genetically identical). Based on this information, state whether the statements below are true or false.
Also, provide an explanation.
1a. True or False: This population can evolve by natural selection.
1b. True or False: This population can evolve by genetic drift.
Answer:
1a. False
1b. False
Explanation:
They are genetic clones which make them identical so there is no difference in phenotype which is the key mechanism for evolution to occur through natural selection.
- since they are of one phenotype(genetically identical) genetic drift can not occur. For genetic drift to occur, there must be a change in the frequency of one allele within a population over a period of time and this genetic variation must occur randomly for a genetic drift to occur.