The primary wavelengths of radiation emitted by Earth’s surface

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

The correct answer is longer than those emitted by the sun.

Explanation:

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Related Questions

Which of the following is an example of the skeletal system interacting directly with the
respiratory system?

A The ribcage expands to allow air to enter the lungs.
B The muscles attached to bones contract to lift your leg.
C The marrow inside bones produces white blood cells.
D The vertebrae protect the spinal cord from injury,​

Answers

A.

The ribcage expands to allow air to enter the lungs is an example of the skeletal system interacting directly with the respiratory system.

Explanation:

The skeletal system is mainly made up of bones - like the ribcage in this case - while the respiratory system is made up of the lungs, trachea, diaphragm, etc.  

When inhaling, the diaphragm contracts, therefore increasing the volume of the chest cavity. The muscles between the ribs also contract causing the ribcage to stretch upwards and outwards. This also contributes to an increase in the volume of chest cavity. Consequently, the pressure in the chest, decreases causing atmospheric pressure to rush  air into the lungs.

When these muscles contract, they raise the pressure in the chest cavity causing air to rush out of the lungs.

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4. Larger squirrels can carry larger acorns to their burrows, and they outcompete smanet Oy
acorn supplies are limited. What type of selection will most likely occur?
a. stabilizing selection
d. sexual selection
b. directional selection
e. selective breeding
c. disruptive selection
f. none of the above

Answers

"Directional selection" will most likely occur.

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

Directional selection or positive selection is an organic selection mechanism in population genetics, this scrutiny is an intense phenotype is preferred over certain phenotypes, allowing the intensity of the allele to migrate over moment towards that phenotype.

For an instance directional selection are fossil statistics showing that the scale of black bears in Europe diminished throughout ice ages interglacial phases however grew at each glacial period. A further example is the scale of the beak in a finch group.

Final answer:

Directional selection is the type of selection that will most likely occur when larger squirrels outcompete smaller ones for acorns, as it favors one extreme of a trait.

Explanation:

In the scenario where larger squirrels can carry larger acorns and they outcompete smaller squirrels when acorn supplies are limited, the type of selection that will most likely occur is directional selection. This is because directional selection occurs when natural selection favors one extreme of a trait, leading to a change in the phenotype frequency over time. In this case, the trait for larger size is advantageous due to the competitive advantage it provides in accessing food resources.

How does your body grow as you get older?

Your cells fill with water, and get bigger.

Your cells divide, producing new cells.


Your cells elongate.

Your cells combine with one another.

Answers

Answer: it B for sure

Explanation: you grow because your cells divide

Answer:

your cells divide produceing new cells you get new cells everyday sence you ever exsisted

Explanation:


AWNSER ASAP PLEASE!!!

Place these percentages in order from most accurate(#1) to least accurate(#5). A class of chemistry students was finding the percent of water in a hydrate. The known value from the literature was 43%. The percentage each pair of students calculated from their lab results is given. ITEM BANK: Move to Bottom Group 1: 66.12% Group 2: 7.11% Group 3: 57.21% Group 4: 22.00% Group 5: 45.55% 1 2 3 4 5

Answers

Answer:

4,2,1,3,5

Explanation:

I believe this is right

Answer:

Explanation:

5,3,4,1,2

Which situation is not an example of the maintenance of homeostasis in an organism?

A. Guard cells contribute to the regulation of water content in a geranium plant.
B. A runner perspires while running a race on a hot summer day.
C. The release of insulin lowers the blood sugar level in a human after eating a big meal.
D. Water passes into an animal cell causing it to swell

Answers

D.

Water passing into an animal cell causing it to swell is NOT an example of the maintenance of homeostasis in an organism.

To make this homeostatic, the cell has to regulate the water by eliminating excess water probably via vacuoles. This way, the cell would not swell.

Explanation:

Homeostasis means the maintenance of steady conditions in the body for the proper functioning of tissues. Homeostasis is governed by positive and negative feedback mechanisms that act in antagonisms in a steady balance to maintain the right parameters. An example is the way glucagon and insulin hormones work antagonistically to maintain the right blood sugar levels at all times even after satiation and in starvation.

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Ricky notices a similarity between a fried egg and the diagram of a cell. Which cell organelles is Ricky likely to associate with the parts of the egg?
centriole
cytoplasm
nucleus
chloroplast
plasma membrane
endoplasmic reticulum

Answers

Answer:

Egg yolk is nucleus

The egg white is cytoplasm

The outside of the egg is plasma membrane

I will edit if I get it right after I finish my test

Ricky correlate egg yolk with nucleus and egg white is cytoplasm, outer covering with plasma membrane.

What are the components of plasma membrane of animal cell ?

The plasma membrane is a thin selectively semi-permeable membrane an outer covering of a cell by surrounding cytoplasm.

The two major components are proteins and lipids where as the ratio of  protein to lipid in plasma membrane may vary depending on types of cells.

The most common lipids are phospholipid, others are sphingolipid, glycolipid in semi-permeable lipid bilayer.

Some organelles nucleus and mitochondria also have bilayer plasma membrane.

The function of cell membrane is to protect the integrity of the internal environment of the cell, act as a base of attachment for the cytoskeleton in some organisms resulted in support cell and maintain its shape.

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What did Charles Lyell's Principles of Geology impress upon Darwin?
the age of the earth may be much older than once thought
that populations are naturally limited
o that finches are the best potential model organisms for evolution
Lyell described Natural Selection

Answers

Charles Lyell's principle that the age of earth may be much older than once thought impressed upon Darwin.

Explanation:

Charles Lyell is one among the earlier thinkers whose studies influenced Darwin and he lived in the 1797-1875 period. while on his voyage in Beagle Darwin took the book of Charles Lyell, Principles of Geology with him.

In this book Lyell argues that the earth's surface was formed as a result of gradual geological processes indicating that the earth was much older than what many believed at that time.

5 Points
Which is mostly studied by meteorologists?
O A. Rocks
O
B. Weather
O
C. Volcanoes
O
D. Fossils
SUBMIT

Answers

Answer:

The answer is B. Weather

Final answer:

Meteorologists primarily study b) Weather, focusing on atmospheric phenomena and weather patterns, unlike geologists or paleontologists who study rocks and fossils respectively.

Explanation:

Meteorologists mostly study B. Weather. Although climate and geological events like volcanic eruptions can impact weather patterns, the primary focus of meteorology is the atmosphere and its phenomena, including wind, rain, storms, and temperature variations. Rocks, on the other hand, are generally studied by geologists; volcanoes are a part of both geology and volcanology; and fossils are within the realm of paleontology.

Plants also need water as a reactant for photosynthesis. The chemical formula for
water is H20. There are two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom present in one
H2O molecule. Make a model of H2O using one green and two yellow paper clips
from the bag.​

Answers

Answer:

The model of water from paper clips can be made as follows:

1) As a water molecule has a single atom of hydrogen, we can place the single green paper clip in the center. This green paper clip will depict a hydrogen atom.

2) As two oxygen atoms are present in a molecule of water we can place each of the two yellow paper clips at the sides of the green paper clip. These yellow paper clips will depict the oxygen atoms.

which statement of purpose best defines the objective of an experiment to test this hypothesis

Answers

A statement of purpose in an experiment should explicitly outline what is to be accomplished during the experiment and the methods of data analysis.

The statement of purpose for an experiment designed to test a hypothesis should clearly define the objectives of the laboratory procedure and the subsequent statistical analysis. An example could be 'Perform an experiment that evaluates the impact of microwave power level and heating time on the temperature of water'. However, it must also encompass the analysis component, such as 'Then, compare the experimental value of 50% power to 100% power using a t-test at both 8 and 10 min to determine if the power level significantly impacts water temperature'.

The overarching goal of experimental science is to rigorously test the hypothesis, usually with an intention to disprove it, thereby enhancing the hypothesis's validity if it withstands the testing. This scientific process involves careful experimental design, including considerations for randomization, replication, and control of extraneous variables, precise data measurement, and meticulous experimentation to successfully achieve the objectives and draw reliable conclusions.

Experiments attempt to produce other observations that support or refute a theory or hypothesis. Hence the correct option is b.

The purpose of performing experiments is to test theories or hypotheses by generating empirical evidence that either supports or refutes them. Through experiments, scientists systematically manipulate variables and observe the outcomes to understand the underlying mechanisms or relationships between phenomena.

Experimentation allows researchers to gather data in a controlled setting, enabling them to draw conclusions about the validity of their hypotheses. By comparing the observed results with the predictions made by the theory or hypothesis, scientists can evaluate the accuracy and applicability of existing scientific models. Therefore, experiments serve as a crucial methodological tool in the scientific process, facilitating the advancement of knowledge and understanding in various fields of study. Hence the correct option is b.

Complete question:

Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of performing experiments? OA. Experiments are designed to produce unexplainable results. B. Experiments attempt to produce other observations that support or refute a theory or hypothesis. OC. None of the answers are correct. O D. Experiments can be replaced by logical reasoning based on the known facts. OE. Experiments are designed to produce the results predicted by a theory or hypothesis.

What role does the enzyme DNA polymerase play in transcription, related to the promoter and terminator sequences on DNA?
It knows when a strand of mRNA should leave the cell's nucleus.
It knows where to begin transcribing and where to stop.
It knows how to synthesize DNA from mismatched codons.
It knows which codons are needed to replace thymine with uracil.

Answers

The enzyme DNA polymerase play in transcription, related to the promoter and terminator sequences on DNA is It knows where to begin transcribing and where to stop.

The correct option is (B).

DNA polymerase is not directly involved in transcription. Instead, it is primarily involved in DNA replication, where it synthesizes a new strand of DNA using a template DNA strand. Transcription, on the other hand, is the process of synthesizing RNA from a DNA template.

During transcription, RNA polymerase is the enzyme responsible for synthesizing RNA from a DNA template. However, DNA polymerase indirectly influences transcription through its interaction with promoter and terminator sequences on DNA.

1. Promoter sequences: DNA polymerase does not directly recognize promoter sequences. Instead, RNA polymerase binds to the promoter region of DNA to initiate transcription. Promoter sequences provide the necessary signals and binding sites for RNA polymerase to recognize and bind to the DNA template, initiating the transcription process. Therefore, DNA polymerase's role in transcription related to promoter sequences is indirect.

2. Terminator sequences: Similarly, DNA polymerase does not directly recognize terminator sequences. Once RNA polymerase reaches the terminator sequence on the DNA template during transcription, it signals the termination of transcription, and the newly synthesized RNA molecule is released. Terminator sequences provide the signal for RNA polymerase to terminate transcription and release the RNA transcript. Again, DNA polymerase's role in transcription related to terminator sequences is indirect.

In summary, while DNA polymerase is not directly involved in transcription, its role indirectly influences transcription through the maintenance of the DNA template and its interaction with promoter and terminator sequences. DNA polymerase ensures the integrity and fidelity of the DNA template, which is essential for the accurate initiation and termination of transcription by RNA polymerase at promoter and terminator sequences, respectively. Therefore, option B is the most accurate description of DNA polymerase's role in transcription related to promoter and terminator sequences on DNA.

If a disorder limits the number of calcium ions that combine to actin, what would happen to the sarcomere? A) The myosin and actin would not separate, and the sarcomere would be unable to contract. B) The myosin and actin would not separate, and the sarcomere would remain contracted. C) The myosin and actin will not connect, and the sarcomere would remain contracted. D) The myosin and actin would not connect, and the sarcomere would be unable to contract.​

Answers

Option D: The myosin and actin would not connect, and the sarcomere would be unable to contract.

Explanation:

Muscle contraction takes place by sliding interaction and cross-bridge formation of the muscle filaments – actin and myosin present in the muscle fibers or sarcomeres. This interaction is called a sliding filament theory.  

Calcium is one of the main co-factors which regulate muscle contraction and relaxation. The two proteins which regulate muscle contraction – troponin, tropomyosin- require calcium to function.

Calcium acts along with troponin to facilitate binding of actin and myosin. When there is a lack of calcium, the binding of myosin and actin does not happen and the sarcomere cannot contract.  

What’s a Axial portion?

Answers

The “Axial Portion” of your body consists of your head, neck, and trunk. Within the axial portion of the body are two large, membrane-lined cavities, the dorsal cavity and the ventral cavity. The dorsal cavity contains the central nervous system.
Final answer:

The Axial portion refers to the central part of the body, encompassing the head, neck, and trunk. It houses vital organs like the brain, heart, and lungs. It's pivotal in studying human anatomy, particularly in biology or health sciences.

Explanation:

The Axial portion is a term used in anatomy and refers to the central part of the body, including the head, neck and trunk. It's essentially the main part of the body that houses critical organs such as the brain, heart, and lungs, among other components. It's often contrasted with the appendicular portion, which includes the appendages (limbs).

Understanding the axial portion of the body can be crucial for studying the human body, especially in terms of biology or health sciences. It allows you to easily locate specific organs and structures within the body, enhancing your understanding of bodily functions and processes.

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Which statement describes an element?

Answers

Answer: An element is a pure substance that can not be broken into smaller particles.

Explanation: An element may comprises of two or more atoms that are chemically embedded or combined together. Elements are building blocks of matter, they are mostly abundant in the universe e.g Oxygen, Hydrogen, Carbon.

Answer:an element is a pure substance, an element is made of only one type of atom, and an element cannot be broken down into a simpler form.

Explanation:

Which 2 molecules forms the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?

Answers

Answer:

Deoxyribose sugar and phosphate groups

Explanation:

The Deoxyribose and phosphate groups are held together by hydrogen bonds. The Deoxyribose is also connected to the nucleic acids, making a complete nucleotide. Deoxyribose is only used in DNA, because DNA means Deoxyribonucleic Acid. RNA is made with a sugar called Ribose.

The two molecules that forms the backbone of DNA ladder are:

1. Deoxyribose

2. Phosphate groups

Deoxyribose is a pentose sugar important in the formation of DNA, or deoxyribonucleic acid. Deoxyribose is a key building block of DNA. Its chemical structure allows for the replication of cells in DNA's double helix configuration.A phosphate backbone is the portion of the DNA double helix that provides structural support to the molecule.

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Which statements are true for a protein whose genetic sequence has 11 codons?

Select all that apply.

1.) It starts with an arginine amino acid.
2.)One start codon and one stop codon are used for its synthesis.
3.)The piece of genetic code used for its production contains 11 codons.
4.)The stop codon codes for methionine.
WILL MARK YOU BRAINLIEST

Answers

Answer: 2.)One start codon and one stop codon are used for its synthesis.

3.)The piece of genetic code used for its production contains 11 codons.

Explanation: Codons are a piece of genetic materia made up of three nucleotides which codes for a specific amino acid. During protein synthesis, one start codon signals the initiation of protein synthesis while one stop codon signals the termination of protein synthesis. The start codon codes for methionine while the stop codon codes for no amino acid. A protein whose genetic sequence has 11 codons is synthesized using a piece of genetic code with 11 codons. There are generally 64 codons. One of which is the start codon while three of which are stop codons. The start codon is AUG while the stop codons are UAA, UAG and UGA.

Only statement 2 is correct; it states that one start codon and one stop codon are used for the protein's synthesis. The start codon codes for methionine, and the stop codons do not code for any amino acid.

To determine which statements are true for a protein whose genetic sequence has 11 codons, let's analyze each option:

1) It starts with an arginine amino acid: This statement is incorrect. According to the genetic code, the start codon for all proteins is AUG, which codes for methionine, not arginine.2) One start codon and one stop codon are used for its synthesis: This statement is correct. Protein synthesis starts with an AUG start codon (coding for methionine) and typically ends with one of the three stop codons (UAA, UAG, or UGA).3) The piece of genetic code used for its production contains 11 codons: This statement is incorrect due to the presence of start and stop codons. If there are 11 codons specified in the question, it implies that 9 codons encode amino acids, while 1 is a start codon and 1 is a stop codon.4) The stop codon codes for methionine: This statement is incorrect. Stop codons (UAA, UAG, UGA) do not code for any amino acid; they signal the termination of protein synthesis.

Only the statement that one start codon and one stop codon are used for its synthesis is correct. The start codon AUG initiates protein synthesis, while a stop codon terminates it.

During which process is mRNA converted into a sequence of amino acids for protein production?
transcription
translation
translocation
mRNA synthesis

Answers

Answer: Translation

Explanation: Translation is a process in which an mRNA strand is copied into an amino acid sequence for protein synthesis. The first step in protein synthesis is the copying of a DNA molecule into a complimentary mRNA molecule in a process known as transcription. The mRNA is then converted to an amino acid sequence in the ribosome in a process known as translation.

Answer:

translation

Explanation:

(b)

A researcher incubates a cell with radiolabeled amino acids. These amino acids are incorporated into the proteins as they are synthesized by the cell. Select which piece of data would indicate the incorporation of radiolabeled amino acids during protein synthesis? A) Radioactivity levels would increase first at the nucleus, followed by the Golgi, and then the cell membrane. B) Radioactivity levels would increase first at the nucleus, followed by the ribosomes, and then the secretory vesicles. C) Radioactivity levels would increase first at the rough endoplasmic reticulum, followed by the Golgi, and then the secretory vesicles. D) Radioactivity levels would increase first at the rough endoplasmic reticulum, followed by the nucleus, and then the secretory vesicles.

Answers

Answer:

During an investigation, the addition of radiolabeled amino acids during protein synthesis occurs when the data shows high levels of radiation in protein synthesis, packaging and transport, which is equivalent to saying that radioactivity levels would first increase in the rough endoplasmic reticulum, followed by the Golgi and then the secretory vesicles (option C).

Explanation:

Protein synthesis in the cell is a process that involves the formation of polypeptide chains with the successive incorporation of amino acids.

RNA, which contains the sequence of triplets or codons that form the genetic code, is coupled to the ribosomes. Each codon or triplet consists of three nucleotides and encodes specific amino acids.

The RNA chain contains a specific nucleotide sequence and determines the assembly of amino acids to a polypeptide chain, by the action of ribosomes present in the rough endoplasmic reticulum.

In the Golgi apparatus, the proteins formed are conjugated, with the addition of carbohydrates or lipids, and arranged in secretory vesicles for transport.

In these steps, where the labeled amino acids are present, the levels of radioactivity would increase in the rough endoplasmic reticulum, the Golgi apparatus and the secretory vesicles.

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Answer:

c is the answer

Explanation:

Which is a physical property?
1.boiling point
2.chemical stability
3.burning point
4.reactivity

Answers

Answer:

Which is a physical property?

Physical property include reactivity

Explanation:

Reactivity entails the reaction when compounds mix with each other, such reaction might be noticed by change in color, loss of water, among others

Codominance occurs when
genes are neither recessive nor dominant
O two genes are equally recessive
O two genes are equally dominant
O genes are linked with the X or Y chromosome

Answers

Answer: two genes are equally dominant.

Explanation: codominance is a phenomenon in which two genes are able to express themselves phenotypically in an equal proportion in an organism. For instance, a gene for black fur (B) in cattle is dominant and the gene for white fur (W) is also dominant, a cattle that inherited the two genes will have black and white fur mixed together in equal proportion. This is known as codominance.

its d cuz it has to be like Rr or Ss or something like that for it to be co

because R or S is dominate over r or s so it cant be equal domnites or recessive above me is wrong he lies why do you think its called Co dominates oof cant spell

The most promising technology for combating the effects of climate change lies in the use of renewable resources like the sun and wind. True or False

Answers

It is true.

Explanation:

Renewable resources  such as sun and wind helps in reducing the effects of climate change.Sun is the source of solar energy. It is absorbed by wind turbines, in capturing wind that generates wind power.The renewable energy technologies have an advantage over conventional energy systems.They have a much less impact on the environment.Hence, the most promising technology for combating the effects of climate change lies in the use of renewable resources like the sun and wind.

Some people have dimples; other people do not. Having dimples is dominant over not having dimples.

If the allele for having dimples is represented with the letter D, what allele combinations can result in having dimples?

a. Dd only
b. dd only
c. DD only
d. DD, Dd

Answers

Final answer:

The allele combinations resulting in a person having dimples, a dominant trait, can be either DD (homozygous dominant) or Dd (heterozygous). The individual will not have dimples if they have two recessive alleles (dd).

Explanation:

In genetics, dominant traits are those that are expressed or visible when inherited. In your question, having dimples is a dominant trait and is represented by the letter D. The presence of at least one 'D' in the allele combinations will result in having dimples. Therefore, the correct answer is DD, Dd. This means individuals with homozygous dominant (two same dominant alleles like DD) or heterozygous (one dominant and one recessive allele like Dd) will have dimples. The only combination that does not produce dimples is when you have two recessive alleles (dd).

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HELP QUICK, 20 POINTS.
picture above. thank you

Answers

Answer:

D

Explanation:

Sublimation is the transition of a substance directly from the solid to the gas phase, without passing through the intermediate liquid phase.

Answer: It is D carbon dioxide, or dry ice; sublimation.

Read the observation, question, and hypothesis. Then, choose the independent variable from the list.
Observation: Bread seems to turn moldy faster in summer than in winter.
Question: Do hotter summer temperatures turn bread moldy faster?
Hypothesis: Bread turns moldy faster at higher temperatures,
The independent variable is
bread
mold.
summer.
temperature

Answers

The independent variable in this experiment is the temperature, as it is the factor being changed to observe its effect on the rate at which bread turns moldy, which is the dependent variable.

In the described scenario, the independent variable is the factor that is changed or controlled to test the effects on the dependent variable, which is the rate at which bread turns moldy. The hypothesis provided states, "Bread turns moldy faster at higher temperatures," which predicts the outcome based on changes made to the independent variable. Therefore, the independent variable is temperature.

During the investigation, it is essential to keep other factors constant, such as the type of bread, the amount of moisture, and exposure to air, among others, so that they do not affect the outcome and interfere with the validity of the experiment.

which event occurs in telophase

Answers

Answer:

1st. the chromosomes arrive at the cell poles

2nd.  the mitotic spindle disassembles

3rd. the vesicles that contain fragments of the original nuclear membrane assemble around the two sets of chromosomes

Explanation:

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During telophase, separated chromosomes arrive at opposite poles, decondense, and are encased in newly formed nuclear envelopes. Meanwhile, cytokinesis divides the cell's cytoplasm, resulting in the creation of two daughter cells.

During telophase, several critical events ensure the proper conclusion of cell division, whether it be mitosis or meiosis. One key event is the arrival of separated chromosomes at opposite poles of the cell. This repositioning is crucial for the equitable distribution of genetic material to daughter cells. As chromosomes reach these poles, they undergo decondensation, transitioning from tightly coiled chromosomes into a more relaxed chromatin state, making genetic material accessible for gene expression.

Simultaneously, the reconstruction of the nuclear envelope around these dispersed chromatids marks the re-establishment of distinct nuclear territories within the emerging daughter cells. This event is vital for the segregation and protection of the genetic material in preparation for the cell's return to the interphase state, where it resumes normal cellular functions.

In addition to these nuclear events, cytokinesis often commences during or shortly after telophase, culminating in the physical division of the cell's cytoplasm into two separate daughter cells. This process varies between organisms and cell types, with animal cells forming a cleavage furrow through the constriction of an actin ring, and plant cells forming a cell plate that will eventually develop into separate cell walls.

20. Earthquakes and volcanic eruptions are common on the western eage o
Which theory does this pattern of geological phenomena support?
are common on the western edge of the Pacific Ocean.
A. weathering
B. the rock cycle
C. plate tectonics
D. biological evolution

Answers

The Theory which supports the volcanic eruptions and earthquakes are Plate tectonics.

Explanation:

The word Plate tectonics is derived from the Greek and Latin word.Plate tectonics deals with the theory with the productive and functional aspects of the lithosphere.The Lithosphere is the outer part of the Earth which consists of mantle and crush that transforms the Earth sciences by providing a standard content for understanding mountain-building processes, volcanoes, and earthquakes and the evolution of Earth’s surface.

Answer:

C

Explanation:

i already took it mate


Replicating an experiment _____.
A. increases validity
B. decreases validity
C. has no effect on validity

Answers

A. increases validity

Answer:

Replicating an experiment _____.

A. increases validity

B. decreases validity

C. has no effect on validity

HELP THIS IS DUE IN AN HOUR!!!!!!!!!!!!​

Answers

one is a and two is a as well

Answer:

1. Amber is made from tree resin.

2. All of the above

3. When a insect gets stuck in tree resin, the insect eventually becomes covered with the sticky resin. After millions of years, the resin hardens and becomes ember.

A man has red-green color blindness. His wife is not color-blind, nor is she a carrier. They give birth to a baby boy. Their doctor says there is zero possibility that the son has red-green color blindness. Which of the following is a possible explanation of the doctor's statement?

Red-green color blindness is a dominant autosomal trait.
Red-green color blindness is a Y-linked trait.
Red-green color blindness is an X-linked trait.
Red-green color blindness is carried by mitochondrial DNA.

Answers

Red-green color blindness is an X-linked trait.  

Explanation:

A red-green color blindness is a hereditary disease which occurs with inheritance of recessive X linked chromosomes, which depicts that the gene or allele causing this defect is presents on the X chromosome.

Since males can express the recessive gene with one copy of the X chromosomes, this defect is more common among men than women.

So even if a grandfather has this defect, this may get inherited by his grandson, while his mother might just be a carrier.

This is the reason why the baby boy inherited the red-green blindness from his father.

Which is not a source of carbon dioxide gas?
A humans
B machines
C plants
D factories

Answers

Answer is
C. Plants
The answer is C, plants
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You have a user who takes his laptop home every day after work. When he's working in the office, the laptop must get an IP address from the DHCP server so you configure it to obtain IP and DNS information automatically. When he's working from home, the laptop must use IP and DNS information that connects with his home network.Which IP addressing method can you use to make sure he gets a network connection at home? What order do they go in? Martin Corporation purchased land in 2007 for $290,000. In 2015, it purchased a nearly identical parcel of land for $460,000. In its 2015 balance sheet, Martin valued these two parcels of land at a combined value of $920,000. By reporting the land in this manner, Martin Corp. has violated thea. historical cost principleb. convergencec. economic entity assumptiond. monetary unit assumption _ to sign the Magna Carta.English lords forced KingA. JohnB. JamesC. GeorgeD. Richard To connect a Visual Basic 2012 application to data in a database, use the ____ Wizard. a. Database Source Connection b. Database Source Configuration c. Data Source Connection d. Data Source Configuration How many months will it take to pay off a $470 debt, with monthly payments of $20 at the end of each month, if the annual interest rate is 15%, compounded monthly? The perimeter of a rectangular note card is 18 inches. The area is 18 square inches. What are the dimensions of the note card? Which algebraic expression is equivalent to the expression below? 9(2x - 6) A. 9x - 3 B. 18x - 54 C. 9x - 8 Teens need to replenish supplies of energy and nutrients at____intervals through the day The concept of multidirectional development suggests that when change is gradual, as when a tortoise grows larger over its 150-year lifespan, it is an example of _____.a) continuityb) discontinuityc) geneticsd) nurture How does Annas mother decision to make a quilt affect future events in history Round the followingnumbers to the nearest 100.817 368 1,4 51 Describe the reasons for and importance of the Monroe Doctrine. A rock is thrown straight up into the air with an initial speed of 55 m/s at time t = 0. Ignore air resistance in this problem. At what times does it move with a speed of 36 m/s? Note: There are two answers to this problem. By standard convention, both the electric potential and the the electric potential energy between two charges is taken to be zero in what configuration? Good explanations often can explain other phenomena. The name for this is __________. Group of answer choices explanatory power fecundity testability falsifiability Read the observation, question, and hypothesis. Then, choose the independent variable from the list.Observation: Bread seems to turn moldy faster in summer than in winter.Question: Do hotter summer temperatures turn bread moldy faster?Hypothesis: Bread turns moldy faster at higher temperatures,The independent variable isbreadmold.summer.temperature What the answer is to question number 4 The falling object in Example 2 satises the initial value problem dv/dt =9.8(v/5), v(0) =0. (a) Find the time that must elapse for the object to reach 98% of its limiting velocity. (b) How far does the object fall in the time found in part (a)? What is 5 divided by 25