Answer:
The wrinkled seed phenotype used by Mendel results from starch branching enzyme.
Explanation:
During mono hybrid cross, Mendel took 2 types of pea plant of which one was tall (TT) and another pea plant was (tt). After crossing, he observed that in F1 generation the ratio of tall and dwarf plant was 3:1
He observed that there is a particular enzyme which causes formation of dwarf plant as the enzyme is absent in wrinkle offspring but present in the round offspring,The enzyme is called as starch branching enzyme.
Thus failure in the formation of this enzyme produce complex metabolic consequences on starch, protein and lipid biosynthesis.
A researcher conducts an experiment on the secretion of a particular hormone in mice. Scientists inject mice with a substance that stimulates the production of the hormone. The scientists then test the levels of hormones produced by the mice. The tool used to measure the hormones consistently detects the levels at 10 points lower than the actual hormone levels in the mice. This tool makes______ measurements, but the measurements aren’t _____.
first blank options:
1.)qualitative
2.)Reliable
3.)Valid
second blank options
1.)quantitative
2.)reliable
3.)valid
The first blank should be filled with Reliable, and the second blank should be filled with Valid. Therefore option 2 and 3 is correct.
The tool used to measure the hormones is reliable because it consistently produces consistent results, albeit with a consistent offset of 10 points lower. The reliability aspect pertains to the consistency and stability of the measurements.
However, the measurements from the tool are not valid because they don't accurately reflect the true hormone levels in the mice. Validity refers to the extent to which a measurement accurately measures what it's intended to measure.
In this case, the tool's measurements are consistently inaccurate by a fixed amount, which means they lack validity as they don't represent the actual hormone levels in the mice.
Therefore option 2 and 3 is correct.
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Using the principles of natural selection, __________ studies how behavior and the mind have evolved.
Answer:
Evolutionary psychology
Explanation:
Evolutionary psychology is the theoretical branch of psychology that describes that how the human behavior have evolved by the effect of evolution through a lens
Only body is not effected by evolution but the brain is also sculpted; the behavior it produce and psychological procedure.There were many psychological mechanisms that were involved in survival of species known as psychological adaptation.The psychological adaptations and their byproducts that are activated in modern environment are different from their ancestral environment in some features.Example;
Our brain insructs us to behave in an adaptive way.
A species of beetle expresses a pigment protein as an adult but not as a juvenile. The pigment is encoded by the gene PIG. A protein called KID, which is only present in juveniles, is a transcription factor that binds to the DNA near the protein-coding sequence for PIG. Do you think KID is a negative regulator of PIG or a positive regulator? Why?
Some individuals in the species never express the pigment (neither as a juvenile or as an adult). Do you think they have a mutation in the KID gene, the KID binding site, or in the protein-coding part of the PIG gene? Why? (the ‘why’ part of the question will only be used to help us give possible credit for answers different than what we think is the clearest answer)
Answer:
The KID protein is responsible for the no pigmentation at the juvenile stage. When the KID protein inhibits in the adult state, the pigmentation occurs in the body. This might occur because the KID protein acts as the repressor molecule and acts as a negative regulator of PIG protein.
The KID protein is responsible for pigmentation an adult stage. Any mutation in the KID gene might result in the loss of pigmentation in the adult. The KID gene is responsible for the binding of the KID protein and mutation in this gene can lead to the arrest of KID protein. The protein is unable to release and PIG continuously repressed in the adults.
You are running a nursery for garden peas at Baton Rouge, and you have two pure-bred garden pea strains: Yellow Wrinkled [YYrr] and Green Round [yyRR]. You know that Yellow is dominant to Green, and also that Round is dominant to Wrinkled. One customer dropped by and asked about one particular pure-bred strain, Yellow Round [YYRR]. You promised to that customer that you could generate that strain next year through the following breeding experiments.
I. Crossing pure-bred Yellow Wrinkled with Green Round
II. Self-crossing F1 progeny
III. Screening pure-bred Yellow Round among the F2 progeny
What is the genotype for F1 progeny?
A. YYrr
B. rrYY
C. YyRr
D. yyrr
E. none of the above
Answer:
C. YyRr
Explanation:
The cross was done between pure-bred Yellow Wrinkled and Green Round plants. The genotype of the pure breeding yellow wrinkled parent plant: YYrr. The genotype of the pure breeding green round parent plant: yyRR.
A cross between YYrr and yyRR would obtain the progeny in the following ratios:
YYrr x yyRR= All YyRr (yellow and round)
Which of the following is/are true?
A. Sympatric speciation most commonly occurs due to sexual (mate) selection.
B. Sympatric speciation can only occur when a single species occupies the same geographic location.
C. A plant species obtain an extra set of homologous chromosomes. This would be an example of sympatric speciation.
D. A flood causes the loss of all red-headed males ducks in a population. As a result, the red-headed female ducks must breed with yellow-headed male ducks, which are not their preferred mates. This is an example of sympatric speciation.
E. The fungal pathogen Mycosphaerella graminicola is found worldwide with its host, cultivated wheat. Mycosphaerella graminicola is host specific and does not occur on other host species such as Barley.
The closest known relative of M. graminicola is a barely-adapted pathogen Septoria passerinii.
You are researching these fungi and have the following hypothesis: If M. graminicola and S passerinii do not have a common ancestor that lived in one geographic area where wheat and barley grew, it may be possible that a common ancestor gave rise to these two species. This would be classified as sympatric speciation.
Your hypothesis and definition of sympatric speciation is logical.
Answer: A, C, and E are correct
Explanation:
Sympatric speciation is a random or naturally occurring event whereby organisms of the same species:
- live in the same territory or nearby territories ( i.e no single specie occupy
an area in isolation)
- DO NOT interbreed, but select a sexual mate from a much diverse territory and practice non-random mating, which favors some genes results in an uneven gene flow or disruption of alleles previously common among the population.
- produce offspring with extra sets of chromosomes known as polyploidy, leading to show genetic variations
Finally, M. graminicola and S passerinii are Sympatric species based on the already given explanation.
You decide to designate the twist allele as FT to distinguish it from the forked allele F. Using the following allele symbols, identify the genotypes of the three F2 classes in Part C by dragging one label to each class. Labels can be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Image attached
Answer:
FTFT, F, FFT (in order left to right)
Explanation:
The twist allele is FT, the forked allele is F. We are told there are pure lines, so this means they are homozygous. That means the parents are FF x FTFT.
The F1 generation is both twisted and forked (as can be seen from the image), suggesting the alleles are codominant (both are expressed).
In the F2, there are three different types of flowers, 2 matching the parental and 1 matching the F1 twisted, forked, and both.
The order from left to right is twisted, forked both. We know twisted is the genotype FTFT, and forked is the genotype FF. The both phenotype would have a copy of each allele, so would be FFT
List the sources of experimental uncertainty. List steps you will take to minimize the uncertainties.
Answer:
Sources of experimental uncertainties
1. Environment- change in environment can bring about experimental error e.g change Temperature can affect crop yield.
2. Wrong caibration of equipment- some equipment need to be calibrated before use. Wrong calibration brings error
Explanation: steps to uncertainties
1.Calibrate equipment when necessary.
2. Ensure fomulars are rightly imputed for electronic devices
3. Experience and competency is needed to avoid Esperanza uncertainties. Expert can be employed
4. Replication for field work reduces uncertainties. E.g maize of the same varieties can be planted in three places on the field to avoid uncertainties.
Alleles of the gene that determines seed coat patterns in lentils can be organized in a dominance series:Marbled > Spotted = Dotted > ClearA lentil plant homozygous for the marbled seed coat pattern allele was crossed to one homozygous for the spotted pattern allele. In another cross, a homozygous dotted lentil plant was crossed to one homozygous for clear. An F1 plant from the first cross was then mated to an F1 plant from the second cross.What are the expected phenotypes of the F1 plants from the two original crosses?
Answer:
first original cross = 100 % marbled seed coat lentils
second original cross = 100% dotted seed coat lentils
Explanation:
Given,
Marbled > Spotted = Dotted > Clear ( Spotted and dotted alleles are codominant )
Let, marble = m
spotted = s
dotted = d
clear = c
First original cross: mm * ss :
m m
s ms ms
s ms ms
Entire progeny has ms genotype. Since m is dominant over s, result will be 100% marbled seed coat lentils.
Second original cross : dd * cc :
d d
c dc dc
c dc dc
Entire progeny has dc genotype. Since d is dominant over c, result will be 100 % dotted seed coat lentils.
Sickle cell anemia and albinism are both recessive traits in humans. Imagine that a couple, already pregnant with twins, has just learned that they are both heterozygous for both of these traits.As the couple's genetic counselor, the couple asks you the following questions about how their carrier status will affect their offspring.Part AIf the couple has fraternal twins, what is the probability that both children will be unaffected by both conditions?Part BIf the couple has fraternal twins, what is the probability that both of the couple's children will have both sickle cell anemia and albinism?Part CWhat is the probability that one of the fraternal twins is a carrier of either, but not both, of the conditions?(Hint: You will need to use both the product law and the sum law to answer this question.)Part DIf the couple has fraternal twins, what is the probability of having two phenotypically normal children, one being a carrier of only the sickle cell anemia recessive allele, and the other being a carrier of only the recessive allele for albinism?(Hint: You will need to use both the product law and the sum law to answer this question.)
A. 81/256 B.1/256 C 4/9 D 1/4
Explanation:
A. Both the parents are heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia, the probability of gene passing to one child is
1/2A*1/2= 1/4 A
The probability of albinism in one of the child of heterozygous parents:
1/2*1/2= 1/4 A
Now from the above data the probability of a child not having albinism the diseases will be known by:
1-1/4 A
= 3/4 A
Similarly for sickle cell anemia the probability of not occurring the disease is also 3/4 S
Now applying the product rule for getting the probability of both the diseases not occurring.
3/4 A*3/4 S = 9/16
Here the two fraternal twins are in question, so the probability of both the children to be unaffected will be 9/16*9/16
=81/256
B. The chances for each child to inherit defective gene from each parent in case of Albinism .is A 1/2*1/2 = 1/4 A
Similarly same with sickle cell anaemia
1/4 S
applying the product law, we can determine the probability of the occurrence of both the diseases in one child
1/4*1/4
1/16
Hence in two children that are fraternal twins, the probability is
1/16*1/16
= 1/256
C. From the data, we can see that the probability of twin to be a carrier is 2/3
the chance of occurrence of both the diseases in one child is
2/3*2/3
=4/9
The chances of not carrying the gene of either disease is1/3*1/3
=1/9
Thus, we can know the probability that if it happens to be fraternal twins the chances of diseases
1-4/9+1/9
=4/9
D. we know that the probability of one fraternal twin carrying a gene for either disease:
chances of carrying the gene is 3/4
chances of not occurrence of gene 1/3
So, in case of fraternal twins 3/4*3/4= 9/16
1/3*1/3 = 1/9
So,1- 9/16+1/9
= 1/4
which of the followings are true about V0 and Vmax? A. The unit for each of them is M B. Vmax is a special V0 when all enzymes bind substrate C. Vmax is independent of enzyme concentration D. V0 can be determined using a linear correlation of product and time in the beginning of a reaction
Answer:
The correct answer is option B.
Explanation:
The unit of Vmax and Vo is moles per second. Km refers to the concentration of the substrate, which is needed to attain the maximum reaction velocity. In case, when [S] is far greater in comparison to Km then Vo will be close to Vmax.
Vmax relies upon the concentration of the enzyme, Vmax enhances with the concentration of the enzyme and becomes steady when all the active sites of enzymes get occupied. Vo increases with the enhancement in the concentration of the substrate with time. Thus, the correct answer is option B, that is, Vmax is a special Vo when all the enzymes combine with the substrate.
Why do bacteria usually contain an even number of replisomes? Choose one: A. Bacteria need only one replisome; the other serves as a backup copy. B. Because replication is bidirectional, there are two replication forks emanating from the origin of replication. C. There are two copies of the gene that codes for DNA polymerase, an important enzymatic protein component of replisomes. D. DNA is double-stranded and each single strand requires its own replisome.
Answer: Option B.
Because replication is bidirectional, there are two replication forks emanating from the origin of replication.
Explanation:
Replisomes are complexes that involve in DNA replication. Replisomes consist of many proteins like ligase, helicase,topoisomerase,DNA polymerase III, e.t.c. The replisomes first unwind double stranded DNA to single strands DNA.
In prokaryotes,the nucleoid divides and requires two replisomes for bidirectional replication. Bacteria normally have even number of chromosome because the replication is bidirectional, and there are two forks which emanates from the origin of replication. The replication forks duplicate both the leading and the lagging strands.
The major function of replisomes is to carryout DNA replication.
Bacteria usually contain an even number of replisomes because DNA replication in bacteria is bidirectional, emanating from a single origin but forming two replication forks, each with its replisome for DNA synthesis (Option B),
Explanation:The correct answer to your question, 'Why do bacteria usually contain an even number of replisomes?' is B. Because replication is bidirectional, there are two replication forks emanating from the origin of replication. For a deeper understanding, let's explain it. In bacteria, the DNA replication starts at a single origin of replication but proceeds bidirectionally, creating two replication forks.
The enzyme helicase unzips the double helix at the origin of replication forming a replication fork. Each of these forks has a complex of proteins called replisome that is required for DNA synthesis. The replisome is responsible for copying the entire bacterial chromosome from the origin of replication to the terminus.
The synthesis is semiconservative where one strand—called the leading strand—is synthesized continuously in the direction of the replication fork, and the second strand, called the lagging strand, is synthesized discontinuously, away from the replication fork, creating Okazaki fragments. Thus, because of this bidirectional nature, there are always two replisomes in prokaryotic DNA Replication, hence an even number of replisomes.
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during the course of development, the phenotype interacts with a environment to produce the genotype true of false
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Development in general involves the interaction between a genotype and its environment. For example, a organism born and raised in a cold climate likely will exhibit phenotipic features closest associated with such climatic conditions compared than other from the same species born and raised in a temperate region. It means that genes differentially expressed in different conditions can influence organismal development, although both organisms have potential to express the same genes
The statement is false. Genotype, a set of genes in an organism's DNA, interacts with the environment to influence phenotype, the physical expression of those genes. Environmental factors can modify phenotypic expression, demonstrating a reciprocal interaction between genotype and environment.
Explanation:The statement provided is false. During the course of development, the genotype - the set of genes in an organism's DNA - influences the organism's traits or phenotype. However, the environment can interact with the genotype, modifying the way these traits are expressed.
For instance, in Mendel's hybridization experiments, true-breeding plants with yellow pods and green pods produced hybrid offspring with yellow pods - the same color as one parent (phenotypically identical) but with a different genetic makeup (genotypically different).
Phenotypes and genotypes are interconnected, with the genotype serving as a blueprint, subject to environmental factors that can influence phenotypic expression. An example of environmental influence is sun exposure affecting skin color or temperature affecting sex determination in certain reptilian species. In essence, there is a reciprocal interaction between the genotype and the environment to determine the phenotype - not the other way around.
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Unconditioned negative reinforcers must be related to our inherited capacity to respond to them (for example, aversive, painful stimuli), and conditioned negative reinforcers must be stimuli that were originally neutral events that acquired their effects through previous pairing with existing negative reinforcers.
O True
O False
Answer: False
Explanation:
Negative reinforcers strengthen a behavior that avoids or removes a negative outcome.
Negative reinforcers are stimuli factors that influence behavior because individuals have capacity we inherited to respond to them and effects of these reinforcers have been established through records and histories of learning. Negative reinforcers are at the mercy of type of response acquired. Negative reinforcers are sources of negative reinforcements.
Unconditioned negative reinforcers
stimuli is one whose removal strengthens the choice behavior in absence of prior learning. Example includes the place of shock, loud noise, intense light.
Other times pain will occasion behavior and other response that eliminates discomfort will be reinforced.
Final answer:
True, unconditioned negative reinforcers are connected to our inherent responses to stimuli like pain, whereas conditioned negative reinforcers are learned through association with existing negative reinforcers. In operant conditioning, negative reinforcement increases the likelihood of a behavior's occurrence by removing an unpleasant stimulus after the behavior happens.
Explanation:
True, unconditioned negative reinforcers are related to our inherent responses to stimuli such as pain, and these unconditioned responses do not require learning. On the other hand, conditioned negative reinforcers are originally neutral but become effective through association with existing negative reinforcers. Consider the scratch response to an itchy bug bite: scratching (the response) leads to the removal of the itch (the aversive stimulus), thus negatively reinforcing the behavior of scratching. Punishment, however, whether positive (adding an undesirable stimulus) or negative (removing a desirable stimulus), always serves to decrease a behavior.
Operant conditioning is the learning process through which the strength of a behavior is modified by reinforcement or punishment. B.F. Skinner, a renowned psychologist, distinguished between reinforcement and punishment, and further between the positive and negative forms of these phenomena. A stimulus that serves as a negative reinforcer for someone may not serve the same function for another, highlighting the subjectivity of these responses.
g A chunk of tissue is treated so that each cell's membrane is broken open to release the contents inside, and then subjected to differential centrifugation. What is the end of the centrifugation
Answer: The end of the centrifugation is microsomal fraction
Explanation:
A chunk of tissue being treated for its cell's membrane to break and release the contents inside describes the process of HOMOGENIZATION.
After homogenization, the various cell components (nuclei, mitochondria, Microsomes etc) can be separated by step-by-step fashion of differential centrifugation based on their size
At low speed, nuclei fraction is collected due to its larger size
At high speed, mitochondrial fraction is collected
At the much higher speed (usually the end) microsomal fraction is collected due to its microscopic size
Four of the five factors below support the mechanism of natural selection. In contrast, the fifth factor blocks natural selection from occurring. Which one of the factors listed below does NOT lead to natural selection, but instead blocks it from occurring?
a. Characteristics are inherited passed from parent to offspring.
b. Organisms in a population are identical to each other.
c. There is competition among organisms in a population.
d. More offspring are born than can survive.
e. Organisms in a population vary in characteristics that affect how well they survive and reproduce.
Answer:
Four of the five factors below support the mechanism of natural selection. In contrast, the fifth factor blocks natural selection from occurring. Which one of the factors listed below does NOT lead to natural selection, but instead blocks it from occurring
Organisms in a population are identical to each other
Explanation:
If organisms are identical then all of them should be able to survive harsh condition but since not all organisms has this identity it makes the law of natural selection not to be supported by the claim. The best organism that thrives survives and pass such trait to the next generation of offspring
Non-segmentation allows for evolutionary innovation in body form.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
Answer: a. True
Explanation: Through evolutionary time, animals have developed more-complex body plans, including true tissues, non-segmentation and bilateral symmetry which is possible as a result of evolutionary innovation--the introduction and progression of novel traits compared to what exists before leading to a more advanced or complex form. Non-segmentation indeed allows for evolutionary innovation in body form.
True or False, it's likely that organisms other than LUCA existed alongside LUCA before the divergence of bacteria from archaea and eukaryotes.
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Angela wants to start a company developing apps. She needs access to R&D to be able to use the newest technologies. Of the conditions that need to be put in place for the Entrepreneurial Ecosystem, she needs ______
Answer:
Research and Development Transfer
Explanation:
she needs Research and Development Transfer, which involves the transferring of technology/skills from the individual or company that owns or holds it to another individual or company.
Addition of ________causes the induction of the ______________ polymerase. This polymerase then binds to the T7 ________________ upstream of the rGFP gene, resulting in the _____________________ of rGFP gene to produce rGFP mRNA. This mRNA is then ______________________ to produce the rGFP protein .
Answer:
Addition of HEAT causes the induction of the T7 RNA polymerase. This polymerase then binds to the T7 RNA POLYMERASE PROMOTER upstream of the rGFP gene, resulting in the TRANSCRIPTION of rGFP gene to produce rGFP mRNA. This mRNA is then TRANSLATED to produce the rGFP protein
Explanation:
T7 RNA polymerase is a warmth inducible compound that is initiated inside the nearness of a warmth source. This polymerase ties to a chose grouping alluded to as the T7 RNA Polymerase advertiser succession. It moves along the DNA grouping prompting the amalgamation of mRNA during a procedure alluded to as translation.
This mRNA is changed over into a protein item through a procedure alluded to as interpretation.
Which of the following is/are true?
A. The fungal pathogen Mycosphaerealla graminicola is found worldwide with its host, cultivated wheat. Mycopharealla graminicola is host specific and does not occur on other host species such as Barley.
The closest known relative of M. graminicola is a barely-adopted pathogen Septoria passerinii.
You are researching these fungi and have the following hypothesis: If M. graminicola and 5 passerinii both had a common ancestor that lived in one geographic area where wheat and barley grew, it may be possible that the ancestor gave rise to these two species in one geographic location. This would be classified as sympatric speciation.
Your hypothesis and definition of sympatric speciation is correct.
B. A flood causes the loss of all red-headed males ducks in a population. This is an example of sympatric speciation.
C. A plant species obtain an extra set of homologous chromosomes. This would be an example of sympatric speciation.
D. Sympatric speciation may be due to sexual (mate) selection.
E. Sympatric speciation can occur when a single species occupies the same geographic location.
Answer: Option C, D, E and A
Explanation:
Sympatric speciation is the evolution or isolation of new species from the original population of species occupying the same geographic area. It is also due to sexual selection of mates leading to reproductive barriers. A plant with extra set of homologous chromosomes is an example. Sympatric speciation is due to isolation of new species from the population of species who arise from common anscetor.
28. Select all accurate statements
A. All chordates will have a muscular post an*l tail
B. All chordates have a dorsal, hollow nerve cord.
C. All chordates have pharyngeal slits or clefts
D. All chordates will have a notochord in their development and/or adulthood
E. All chordates are bilaterally symmetrical animals
Answer:
its A but I am not sure I just tried
Answer:
All the options A,B,C,D and E are correct.
Chordates possess a muscular posterior tail, a dorsal, hollow nerve cord, pharyngeal slits or clefts, a notochord in their adulthood and are bilaterally symmetrical animals.
Many properties of living things involve the transfer and transformation of energy and matter. For example, plant chloroplasts convert energy from sunlight to what forms of energy or matter?
Answer:all of
Explanation:
Sickle cell anemia and albinism are both recessive traits in humans. Imagine that a couple, already pregnant with twins, has just learned that they are both heterozygous for both of these traits.
As the couple's genetic counselor, the couple asks you the following questions about how their carrier status will affect their offspring.
Part A
If the couple has fraternal twins, what is the probability that both children will be unaffected by both conditions?
Part B
If the couple has fraternal twins, what is the probability that both of the couple's children will have both sickle cell anemia and albinism?
Part C
What is the probability that one of the fraternal twins is a carrier of either, but not both, of the conditions?
(Hint: You will need to use both the product law and the sum law to answer this question.)
Part D
If the couple has fraternal twins, what is the probability of having two phenotypically normal children, one being a carrier of only the sickle cell anemia recessive allele, and the other being a carrier of only the recessive allele for albinism?
(Hint: You will need to use both the product law and the sum law to answer this question.)
Answer:
A. 81/256
B. 1/256
C. 4/9
D. 1/4
Explanation:
A. Given,
Both parents to be heterozygous.
Therefore, the chances for one child to inherit a defective gene from each parent
= Â ½ * ½ =Â ¼.
In the same vein, the probability of being affected by albinism
=Probability of possessing a defective gene from each parent
= Â ½ * Â ½
= Â ¼
Now, The probability of not being affected is represented using the formulae
= 1- the probability ofbeing affected
= 1-¼ Â
= Â ¾.
Thus, the probability of not being affected by both albinism and sickle cell anemia
= Â ¾ * ¾
= Â (3 * 3)/(4 * 4)
= Â 9/16.
So,
The probability of neither twins to be affected
= 9/16 * 9/16
= (9 * 9)/(16 * 16)
=81/256.
B. We obtain the chances for a child to possess one defective gene from each parent
= Â ½ * ½
= Â ¼.
In the same vein, the probability of being affected by albinism
=Probability of inheriting one defective gene from each parent
= Â ½ * Â ½
= Â ¼
Now, the probability of being affected by both albinism and sickle cellanemia
= Â ¼ * Â ¼
= 1/16
Therefore, the probability of both twins to be affected
= 1/16 * 1/16
= 1/256.
C. Take, the probability of twin 1 to be a carrier for albinism to be = 2/3 (note, the homozygous recessive is affected, not the carrier).
We can say that the chances of twin 1 to be a carrier for both the diseases
= 2/3 * 2/3
= 4/9.
In like vein, the chances of carrying neither recessive allele
= 1/3 * 1/3
= 1/9.
Therefore, the probability that one of the fraternal twins is a carrier of either, but not both,
= 1- (4/9 + 1/9)
= 1 - (5/9)
= 4/9
D. Given, the probability of one fraternal twin carrying a gene for either disease:
Take;
The provability of carrying the gene to be 3/4
= 3/4 * 3/4
= 9/16
Thw chances of non occurrence of gene = 1/3
And for fraternal twins
= 1/3 * 1/3
= 1/9
Therefore, the probability of having two phenotypically normal children, one being a carrier of only the sickle cell anemia recessive allele, and the other being a carrier of only the recessive allele for albinism
= 1 - (9/16+1/9)
= 1/4.
Primary ciliary dyskinesia (PCD) is a rare genetic disease. Affected individuals exhibit impaired functioning of ciliated cells.
Based on what you know about the role of cilia in eukaryotic cells, why would you expect people with PCD to be particularly susceptible to respiratory infections?
Answer:
Cilia are motile in the lungs responsible for keeping the airways clear of dirt and mucus by their characteristic beating motion and rhythmic waving allowing a person to breathe easily and without irritation. These are present in both the lungs as well as middle ear.
As in Primary ciliary dyskinesia , there are defects in the action of cilia in the lining of the respiratory tract , middle ear , sinuses , eustachian tube etc the cilia cannot peforms its regular role .Infections can lead to an irreversible scarring and obstruction in the bronchi resulting in :
1) Shortness of breath.
2) Recurring chest colds.
3) Sinusitis.
4) Coughing , gagging , choking,
5)Middle ear infections
Answer: The respiratory wall or mucosa is made up of the epithelium and supporting lamina propria. The epithelium of respiratory tract is tall columnar pseudostratified with CILIA and goblet cells The cilia aids in sweeping away dusts and bacteria that adheres to the mucous on the epithelium. Therefore people with Primary ciliary dyskinesia are prone to Respiratory infections.
Explanation: Primary ciliary dyskinesia also called immotile ciliary syndrome is a rare genetic disease that affects the movement of cilia lining the respiratory tract. The major consequences of this dysfunction is reduced or absent mucus clearance from the lungs which subsequently leads to chronic recurrent respiratory infections
I hope this helps. Thanks!
Select the true statements about protein secondary structure. a. The α‑helix is held together by hydrogen bonds between the amide N − H N−H and C = O C=O groups. b. In a β‑pleated sheet, the side chains are located between adjacent segments. c. In an α‑helix, the side chains are located on the outside of the helix. d. The secondary level of protein structure refers to the spatial arrangements of short segments of the protein. e. Peptide bonds stabilize secondary structure.
Answer:.
→The α‑helix is held together by hydrogen bonds between the amide N − H N−H and C = O C=O groups
→ In a β‑pleated sheet, the side chains are located between adjacent segments.
→ In an α‑helix, the side chains are located on the outside of the helix. .
→ The secondary level of protein structure refers to the spatial arrangements of short segments of the protein
Explanation:
This is the level of protein which results from spatial arrangement produced by the formation of hydrogen bonds between the oxygen atom of one carboxyl group(c=0) group, and hydrogen of the NH group of amino acids four places ahead of it .( The resulting structure is coiled and are therefore called alpha-helices)
AND
Hydrogen bonds between adjacent amino acids that join them side by side so that the bonds appear straight rather than coil, and the chains form upwards-downwards-upward- downwards format to form flat shaped structure called beta-pleated sheet.
The hydrogen bonding is due to strong polarities of the –NH- CO- groups of amino acids.
The two structures account for the spatial arrangement of secondary protein structure. Secondary structure is stabilized by the orientation and aggregation of these hydrogen bonds. . The outwards distributions of the side chains, the non-polar nature (hydrophobic) of alpha-helix makes some secondary proteins ideal as integral membrane proteins.
Note- peptide bond stabilizes primary protein structure.
The following statements are true for protein secondary structure:
The amide N-H and C=O groups form hydrogen bonds that hold the -helix together.In a helix, the side chains are found outside the helix.The secondary structure is stabilized by peptide bonds.Therefore, the correct options are A, C and E.
The polypeptide chain is regularly coiled to form a -helix, and hydrogen bonds between the amide NH and C=O groups help to stabilize the structure. Because they occur outside the helix and extend outward in a -helix, amino acid side chains enable interactions with the environment. The covalent bonds that link amino acids together, known as peptides, are essential for maintaining the secondary structure. Rotation is hindered by the planar structure of the peptide bond, which helps to form regular patterns such as the -helix.
Therefore, the correct options are A, C and E.
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You are given a metaphase chromosome preparation (a slide) from an unknown organism that contains 12 chromosomes. Two that are clearly smaller than the rest appear identical in length and centromere placement.
What would most likely be true of these two chromosomes? Select all that apply.
They have similar banding patterns.
They contain identical genetic information.
They would replicate synchronously during the S phase of the cell cycle.
They are homologous chromosomes.
Answer:
True answers are as follow:
a. They have similar banding patterns.
c. They would replicate synchronously during the S phase of the cell cycle.
d. They are homologous chromosomes.
Explanation:
In Mitosis, chromosomes condense and align in the center before moving to each opposite pole is called meta-phase. (See attached picture)
In this stage you will observe similar banding pattern of homologous chromosomes that were replicated during S phase of cell cycle.
The two smaller, identical chromosomes most likely are homologous chromosomes, containing the same gene order and potentially identical genetic information. They would replicate together during the S phase of cell cycle.
Explanation:The two chromosomes that are smaller and identical in length and centromere placement are likely to be homologous chromosomes. As such, they would have similar banding patterns because they have the same order of genes. They would contain identical genetic information only if there hasn't been any genetic recombination during meiosis. The replication of these chromosomes would occur synchronously during the S phase of the cell cycle as DNA replication happens to all chromosomes of a cell at the same time.
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Crenation and hemolysis A cell placed in a hypertonic solution will shrink in a process called crenation. A cell placed in a hypotonic solution will swell in a process called hemolysis. To prevent crenation or hemolysis, a cell must be placed in an isotonic solution such as 0.9% (m/v) NaCl or 5.0% (m/v) glucose. This does not mean that a cell has a 5.0% (m/v) glucose concentration; it just means that 5.0% (m/v) glucose will exert the same osmotic pressure as the solution inside the cell, which contains several different solutes. Part D
Question options:
A red blood cell is placed into each of the following solutions. Indicate whether crenation, hemolysis, or neither will occur.
Solution A: 3.21% (m/v) NaCl
Solution B: 1.65% (m/v) glucose
Solution C: distilled H2O
Solution D: 6.97% (m/v) glucose
Solution E: 5.0% (m/v) glucose and 0.9%(m/v) NaCl
Answer:
Crenation: A, D, E
Hemolysis: B, C
Explanation:
Crenation is an osmotic process in which blood cells shrink while placing hypertonic or alkaline solutions.
Crention caused by these hypertonic solutions.
A: 3.21% (m/v) NaCl (more solutes)
D: 6.97% (m/v) glucose (more solutes)
D: 5.0% (m/v) glucose and 0.9%(m/v) NaCl (more solutes)
Hemolysis is the destruction of red blood cells in which cells bloat up and may explode while placing in a hypotonic solution.
Hemolysis caused by these hypotonic solutions.
B: 1.65% (m/v) glucose
C: distilled H2O
Crenation (cell shrinkage) occurs when cells are placed in hypertonic solutions, while hemolysis (cell swelling) occurs when they are put in hypotonic solutions. To maintain cell size and form, cells should be in isotonic solutions, which have the same solute concentration as the cells. Examples of isotonic solutions are 0.9% m/v NaCl or 5.0% m/v glucose.
Explanation:Crenation and hemolysis are processes that pertain to the behavior of cells in different types of solutions. When a cell is placed in a hypertonic solution - a solution with a greater concentration of solutes compared to the cell's cytoplasm - the water molecules inside the cell will move outside to balance the solute concentration, causing the cell to shrink. This process is known as creation.
On the other hand, if a cell is placed in a hypotonic solution - a solution with a lower solute concentration than the cell's cytoplasm - the water molecules will move into the cell, causing it to swell and potentially burst in a process called hemolysis.
To prevent either crenation or hemolysis from occurring, the cell should be placed in an isotonic solution. An isotonic solution has the same solute concentration as the cell's cytoplasm, ensuring equal water movement in and out of the cell, and thus, maintaining the cell's size and shape. Examples of isotonic solutions are 0.9% (m/v) NaCl or 5.0% (m/v) glucose. However, these percentages do not imply that a cell has a 5.0% (m/v) glucose concentration. It means that these solutions exert the same osmotic pressure as that inside the cell, which has multiple solutes.
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Was the rate of increase of sucrase activity greater when sucrose concentration went from 2.5 to 7.5 g/l or when it went from 22.5 to 27.5 g/l?
Answer: It is greater when sucrose concentration went from 2.5 to 7.5g/l.
Explanation: The rate of reaction of an enzyme is known to be affected by the rate of concentration of its substrate, which in this case is the sucrose Solution.
If the rate of increase of concentration is high,the activities of the enzyme SUCRASE will increase accordingly, in order to breakdown the substrate.
The rate of increase of Sucrose from 2.5 to 7.5g/l is higher(300%) than the rate of Increase of Sucrose from 22.5 to 27.5g/l (1.22%). It is expected under circumstances that the action of SUCRASE will increase at a rate higher in the first Solution than in the second Solution.
The rate of increase in sucrase activity depends on the concentration of sucrose and whether or not the enzyme is saturated. The increase could be greater at lower concentrations (2.5 to 7.5 g/l) if sucrase is not yet saturated. The increase might be less at higher concentrations (22.5 to 27.5 g/l) if sucrase is near or at saturation point.
Explanation:The increase in sucrase activity is generally considered to be a response to the concentration of substrate present, in this case, sucrose. The increase in activity happens because more substrate (sucrose) is available for the enzyme (sucrase) to act upon. However, there is a limit to this increase. Once the enzyme is saturated with substrate, further increases in substrate concentration do not increase the enzyme's activity. This is known as the saturation point.
To determine whether sucrase activity increased more when sucrose concentration increased from 2.5 to 7.5 g/l or from 22.5 to 27.5 g/l, we would need specific data on the rate of sucrase activity at these different concentrations. It's possible that the increase from 2.5 to 7.5 g/l was greater if this is in the ascending portion of the enzyme activity curve and the sucrase was not yet saturated with sucrose. Conversely, the increase from 22.5 to 27.5 could be lesser if the sucrase is near or at saturation point.
Learn more about sucrase activityIf you allowed your dilution tubes to incubate for 24 hours before plating them on the TSA agar plates, do you think the results of the experiment would be impacted? Assume that unlimited resources are present in the tubes. Explain your answer.
Answer:
The TSA or the tryptic soy agar is formed of casein and soybean meal, this formation helps in the appropriate growth of a huge array of non-fastidious and fastidious microbes. This combination of soy and casein provides organic nitrogen in the form of polypeptides and amino acids, which makes the medium more suitable for growth.
In the given case, if one permits the incubation of the dilution tubes for 24 hours prior to plating them on the TSA agar plates than there is a more probability of the result to get affected. As if unlimited resources are already present in the tubes, it will provide more favorable conditions for the formation of more colonies and thus will influence or change the colony-forming units per milliliter.
Even if the dilution is performed in a hood and in an autoclaved medium then also there will be an increase in the colonies of the microbes as in the time of 24 hours interval more microbes will get differentiated and will increase in number.
Final answer:
Allowing dilution tubes to incubate for 24 hours with unlimited resources before plating on TSA agar plates would impact the results by potentially causing confluent growth, making it difficult to distinguish individual colonies. TSA plates would typically have more colonies compared to EMB plates as TSA is non-selective and supports a broader range of bacterial growth.
Explanation:
If you allow dilution tubes to incubate for 24 hours before plating them on TSA agar plates, the results of the experiment would likely be impacted. Given unlimited resources in the tubes, this prolonged incubation could lead to an increase in bacterial growth, which may result in confluent growth (a mass of bacteria) in the test tube itself. Therefore, when you eventually do the plating, distinguishing individual colonies could be difficult or impossible, which would complicate or invalidate the results meant to measure bacterial concentration.
Regarding the comparison between TSA and EMB plates, due to the selective and differential properties of EMB agar, it inhibits the growth of gram-positive bacteria and highlights the growth of gram-negative bacteria, like Escherichia coli, by a color change. Since TSA agar is non-selective and supports a wider range of bacterial growth, you would generally expect more colonies on the TSA plates compared to the EMB plates, which would select only for specific types of bacteria.
How do you plant a lavender? What are the best conditions to grow it
Answer:
Lavender is best planted in the spring as the soil is warming up. If planted in the fall, use bigger plants to ensure survival over the winter
2. Plant lavender 2 to 3 feet apart
3.It thrives in any poor or moderately fertile soil.
4.Keep away from wet, moist areas.
Answer:
Lavender is grown in garden beds, pots and requires maximum sunlight and a soil that is well drained for good germination. The soil require for lavender growth should be moderately fertile. It can grow in both arid and humid lands but climate affects the its growth rate.