Answer:B and
Explanation:B and D
She is not allowing her muscles to heal from the the exercise and it could cause her to become injured
Dr. Phillips is a clinical psychologist who has a client that exhibits some very unusual behaviors. She writes a report on this so that her colleagues can benefit from her observations. What type of research is Dr. Phillips conducting?A. A case study
B. A survey
C. Correlational
D. Experimental
Answer:B
Explanation:
Select the correct answer from each drop-down menu.
Select the phrase that correctly completes the statement.
Serve bread (above, to the left of, to the right of ) the plate.
Serve beverages ( above, to the left of, to the right of ) the plate.
Answer: Bread- to the left
Beverages- to the right
Explanation:
"Serve bread to the left of the plate. Serve beverages to the right of the plate."
These phrases correctly complete the statement regarding the placement of bread and beverages in relation to the plate when serving a meal. The standard convention is to place the bread plate to the left of the main plate, while the beverage glasses are placed to the right of the main plate.
Following this convention helps create an organized and aesthetically pleasing table setting, as well as facilitate the smooth and efficient serving of food and drinks. Therefore, it is important to pay attention to proper table etiquette and placement when hosting formal dinners or events.
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A mental illness causing a man to think he is Napoleon and is now governing the world is called _____
A viral disease characterized by sudden onset with slight fever, successive eruptions of macules, papules, and vesicles on the skin, followed by crusting over of the lesions with a granular scab is known as:_______.
Answer:
The correct answer is chiken pox.
Explanation:
Chickenpox is a very highly contagious disease which is caused by the varicella-zoster virus. It is characterized by fatigue, sudden mild fever, eruption of macules, papules, and vesicles on back and chest first then they are spread to other body parts.
Then these papules or blisters get burst and the lesions dry into scab or brown crust. This virus can spread from one person to another person through direct contact with the fluid of an infected person or through the air. So the right answer is chickenpox.
Answer:
Chicken pox
Explanation:
Chickenpox is a disease caused by the varicella-zoster virus which affects the children than adults.
Once the pathogen enters the host it uses its machinery to replicate and the body shows symptoms like a slight fever and the itchy skin with red bumps called papules, the crusts and scabs and the small fluid-filled blisters which can break and gets leaked.
In the given question, since the symptoms are similar to the symptoms shown by the pathogen varicella zoster virus therefore the chickenpox is the correct answer.
1. HIV/AIDS
A. STD that can result in damage to joints
B. STD caused by a protozoan
C. Most common STD among teens
D. STD diagnosed by a Pap test
E. STD that result in death
Answer:
A. STD that can result in damage to joints
Explanation:
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Your client's lab values are sodium 166 mEq/L, potassium 5.0 mEq/L, chloride 115 mEq/L, and bicarbonate 35 mEq/L. What condition is this client likely to have, judging by anion gap?
A. Metabolic acidosis.
B. Respiratory alkalosis.
C. Metabolic alkalosis.
D. Respiratory acidosis.
Answer:
The correct answer is - option A.
Explanation:
The anion gap is the difference between the positively and negatively charged electrolytes sum of bicarbonate and chloride ion and potassium and sodium cations.
Too high or too low of the anion gap is related to the disorder in lung, kidney and other. An anion gap that is more than 16 mEq/L suggestes that it is case of metabolic acidosis, in the given given question the anion gap is : (166+5) - (115+35), yielding 21 mEq/L.
Thus, the correct answer is - option A.
If you hear a loud noise that awakens you while going to sleep and you feel as though you had not even been asleep, then you were most likely in which stage of sleep?
Answer:
If you hear a loud noise that awakens you while going to sleep and you feel as though you had not even been asleep, then you were most likely in which Relaxed wakefulness state.
Explanation:
"Relaxed Wakefulness is a daily recurring brain state and state of consciousness in which an individual is conscious and engages in coherent cognitive and behavioral responses to the external world."
An enzyme known as lipase digests fats. An inhibitor of lipase is used as a weight-loss drug. This inhibitor binds in the active site of lipase. This inhibitor most likely resembles a(n) _____.
Answer:
The correct answer is - a fat
Explanation:
According to the enzyme-substrate reaction the substrate binds to the active site of the enzyme and makes the enzyme-substrate complex and product is obtained after the reaction.
So for lipase, the substrate is fat which is broken down into simpler form by lipase. So to inhibit the lipase activity the inhibitor should fit into the active site of the lipase enzyme. The inhibitor will fit only if the shape of the inhibitor resembles the substrate(fat) of lipase. So this inhibitor should likely to resemble as a fat.
The nurse is educating a client diagnosed with a urinary tract infection about the prescribed trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ). The client has a history of type 2 diabetes and currently takes a sulfonylurea. Which statement made by the client establishes the need for further clarification?
Answer:
Hyperglycemia.
Explanation:
The hormones insulin and glucagon are released from the pancreatic islets. These hormones are important for the maintenance of the blood glucose level in the body.
The intake of sulfonylurea in the diabetic patient decreases the blood glucose level of the body and result in increase in the hypoglycemic effect. The statement made by the client that after taking sulfonylurea, he might have hyperglycemia condition require further clarification.
Thus, the answer is hyperglycemia.
_____ says that we actually have many emotional reactions apart from, or even before, our interpretations of a situation.
Answer:
Zajonc
Explanation:
Psychologists define anything that threatens one's well-being as stress. Please select the best answer from the choices provided T F
Answer:
True
Explanation:
The definition of stress may vary upon the perception of the individual but the psychologists have analysed and proposed that stress is the circumstance which can threaten the well being of the individual.
The factors which could be responsible for the well being may differ from individual to individual like the self-esteem may be important for one but not for others, the reputation may be important for some but not for all, therefore, the definition of the stress becomes complex.
Thus, true is the correct answer.
Yes, psychologists do define anything that threatens one's well-being as stress. If not properly managed, too much stress can have harmful impacts on both physical and mental health.
Explanation:Psychologists do define anything that threatens one's well-being as stress. Stress can come from any situation or thought that makes you feel frustrated, angry, nervous, or anxious. Too much stress is known to have detrimental impacts on your physical and mental health. This can manifest in several ways which may include: difficulty sleeping, increased or suppressed appetite, higher risk of heart attack, and depression among others. That's why it's important to manage stress properly through techniques such as relaxation exercises, mindfulness, and maintaining a healthy lifestyle.
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A patient with an acid-base imbalance has an altered potassium level. The nurse recognizes that the potassium level is altered because ________.
a. Potassium is returned to extracellular fluid when metabolic acidosis is corrected.
b. Hyperkalemia causes an alkalosis that results in potassium being shifted into the cells.
c. Acidosis causes hydrogen ions in the blood to be exchanged for potassium from the cells.
d. In alkalosis, potassium is shifted into extracellular fluid to bind excessive bicarbonate.
c. Acidosis causes hydrogen ions in the blood to be exchanged for potassium from the cells. The potassium level is altered in patients with acid-base imbalances as hydrogen ions are exchanged for potassium between the cells and extracellular fluid during acidosis, and potassium shifts into the cells during alkalosis.
The potassium level is altered in a patient with an acid-base imbalance because acidosis causes hydrogen ions in the blood to be exchanged for potassium from the cells. When the body experiences acidosis, there is an excess of hydrogen ions, leading to a lower pH in the blood. To combat this imbalance, the body will exchange extracellular hydrogen ions for intracellular potassium ions, increasing the level of potassium in the extracellular fluid. This mechanism helps to buffer the blood pH, but it also leads to altered potassium levels, which can have clinical consequences. On the other hand, in conditions of alkalosis, where there is a relative deficit of hydrogen ions, the opposite happens, causing potassium to shift into cells and potentially lead to hypokalemia, which is an abnormally low level of potassium in the blood.
Oral bacteria and dietary sugars are two of the three parts of the "Etiology Triad" of Early Childhood Caries. What is the third part of the triad?
Answer:
Teeth (The enamel and dentine of teeth which is vulnerable to demineralization) is the third part of triad.
Explanation:
Etiology triad includes :
1) Oral bacteria
2) Dietary sugars.
3) Teeth
Oral bacteria break down dietary sugars into acids which break down the teeth.
Bacteria are the causative agent . Destroys tooth structure , often rapidly. Usually affets the maxillary incisors first.
Potentially sever consequences could include pain , tooth loss , pulpitis , pulp necrosis and dental abscess.
Todd is preoccupied with a small bump on his nose that he thinks is "huge and grotesque." Daily, he spends hours in front of the mirror examining his perceived defect. Todd would most likely be diagnosed with ________.a. an adjustment disorder
b. hypochondriasis
c. an impulse control disorder
d. body dysmorphic disorder
Answer:
I believe it’s d body dysmorphic disorder
Explanation:
Todd has a small bump on his nose, but he thinks it is big. So he spends lots of time looking at the mirror. This type of mental illness shows he has been diagnosed with body dysmorphic disorder. Option d is correct for the situation.
What is mental illness?Mental illness has several reasons and effects. Some people are affected by this because of traumatic past experiences, while others are affected by the judgments that others receive for having the same flaws.
In body dysmorphic disorder, a person is very anxious about his body. If there are any small injuries or small bumps, then they feel insecure about that. They try their best to avoid the situation. Todd has a small bump, but he thinks that others might see it as gross and judge him or her for it, so he examines it daily.
Hence, Todd is suffering from body dysmorphic disorder. Option d is correct for the situation.
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An older adult client expresses concern about straining to pass stools that are small and hard. What term will the health care provider use to document this in this client's chart?
Answer:
Bowl Movement (BM)
Explanation:
Answer:
Bowl Movement (BM)
Explanation:
Please help asap will branliest please
BLANK often involves a medical professional assigning a numeric value to a medical procedure for insurance reimbursement purposes.
Medical coding is the process of assigning numeric values to medical procedures for insurance reimbursement. This task requires an in-depth understanding of medical terminology and coding systems for accurate billing. It plays a significant role in healthcare, especially for patients managing serious illnesses and complex self-care routines.
The blank in the statement often involves a medical professional assigning a numeric value to a medical procedure for insurance reimbursement purposes is typically filled by the term 'medical coding'. Medical coding is an essential part of the healthcare industry, as it allows for the standardization of medical procedures and treatments for billing and insurance purposes.
When patients are diagnosed with a serious illness and experience fear or confusion, or when they have to manage complex self-care due to their health conditions, understanding the medical billing process can be even more daunting. Moreover, when people visit the doctor, they are often presented with a prescription that includes names of medication and details that may not be immediately understandable because of the medical jargon or the doctor's handwriting. These experiences emphasize the importance of clear communication and accurate medical coding in healthcare.
Successful medical coding involves interpreting medical records and assigning standardized codes to each diagnosis and procedure that has been conducted, which are then used by insurance companies to determine the payment. Medical professionals who perform this task need a deep understanding of medical terminology, anatomy, and the coding system itself. This process is crucial in ensuring that patients and insurance companies are billed accurately for the healthcare services rendered.
Applications of cognitive science to health informatics include all of the following, except:
a. Interoperability of systems
b. Decision support systems
c. Usability and user-centered interfaces
d. Terminology development
Answer:
a. Interoperability of systems
Explanation:
Theories and methods from cognitive science can greatly inform medical informatics by addressing issues such as the usability of systems, the process of medical decision making, and the training of physicians and end users.
These includes decision support systems , usability and user-centered interfaces, terminology development and so on.
Cognitive science is used in health informatics, with applications in interoperability of systems, decision support systems, and usability and user-centered interfaces. But it does not directly apply to terminology development, which is important for smooth communication in health informatics but does not utilize cognitive science principles.
Explanation:The field of cognitive science pertains to the study of mind and intelligence. It involves various disciplines such as psychology, computer science, philosophy, neuroscience etc., and it is applied to several areas including health informatics to facilitate better healthcare delivery.
Now, considering the options, interoperability of systems, decision support systems, and usability and user-centered interfaces are all applications of cognitive science to health informatics. Interoperability helps different information systems to work together within and across organizational boundaries, decision support systems augment clinical decision-making process, and usability brings user-centered design principles to ensure that health systems are efficient and user friendly.
However, terminology development is not directly an application of cognitive science. While having uniform and shared terminologies is important in health informatics for smooth communication and understanding, it doesn't directly involve the application of cognitive science principles.
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Mary Whiton Calkins: a. founded the first psychology laboratory in America at Yale University. b. studied with Sigmund Freud and became the first female psychoanalyst in the United States. c. is best known for her pioneering research on comparative psychology and her book, The Animal Mind. d. conducted research on personality, dreams, and memory, and was the first woman elected president of the American Psychological Association.
Answer:
The correct answer is - option D.
Explanation:
Mary Whiton Calkins was a psychologist and the philosopher who was first to introduce the field of the one's own or self psychology. She was first women elected as the president of the american psychological association.
She is known for the her research on dreams, memory, personality and developing the theory of self psychology that was focuses on the one's own relations to the goals and objects in the particular external environment.
Thus, the correct answer is - option D.
Psychologists use the term ________ to refer to a relatively permanent change in behavior brought about by experience.
Answer:
Learning
Explanation:
Final answer:
The term psychologists use to refer to a relatively permanent change in behavior due to experience is 'learning'. This includes adapting to new knowledge or behaviors and psychological processes modifications. It is embodied by Piaget's concept of 'accommodation', where cognitive schemas are modified through new experiences.
Explanation:
Psychologists use the term learning to refer to a relatively permanent change in behavior brought about by experience. This concept encompasses not only academic knowledge and skills acquired through study but also a variety of changes in psychological processes. For example, adaptations in social behaviors or the development of psychological disorders like PTSD can be forms of learning.
Jean Piaget, a renowned psychologist, described a related concept called accommodation, which occurs when new information or experiences lead to the modification of existing cognitive schemas. This is a specific type of learning that involves changing one's framework of understanding as new knowledge is integrated.
In essence, learning is a change in behavior or knowledge that results from experience, distinguishing it from innate behaviors like reflexes. Learned behaviors are flexible and adaptable, essential attributes that allow individuals and organisms to modify their actions to suit changing conditions and environments.
5.
Sperm and other secretions from the male reproductive system make up ___
A. Penis
B.Testosterone
C.Testes
D.semen
E. Scrotum
Answer:D
Explanation:
C.J. is stuck in her car during a bitterly cold blizzard. Her body responds to the cold by ________. a. increasing the blood to her hands and feet b. breaking down stored energy c. becoming lethargic to conserve heat d. significantly increasing blood oxygen levels
Answer:
c
Explanation:
C.J. is stuck in her car during a bitterly cold blizzard. Her body responds to the cold by becoming lethargic to conserve heat. Thus, option C is correct.
What is cold blizzard?
Cold blizzard is very dangerous winter storms and it is a combination of blowing snow and wind resulting in very low visibilities.
The speed of winds over 72 km/h near zero visibility, and temperature of -12 degree C and 10 degree F.
Homeostasis is the self- regulating procedure in which the system of the body maintain internal temperature and adjusting the outer conditions.
Homeostasis is very important to maintain the temperature of the body as when it is too much cold the body starts shivering to generate heat and release sweat to maintain the temperature of the body.
Therefore, C.J. is stuck in her car during a bitterly cold blizzard. Her body responds to the cold by becoming lethargic to conserve heat. Thus, option C is correct.
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Scientists enroll 500 healthy adults in a study and collect dietary and other lifestyle
information about the group. After 6 years, the scientists determine that study participants
who ate at least 5 servings of fruits and vegetables daily were less likely to develop high
blood pressure than participants who ate fewer than 5 servings of these foods daily. This study
is an example of a(n) ____ study.
A. prospective
B. nutritive
C. retrospective
D. introspective
Answer:
The correct option is A: Prospective Study
Explanation:
A prospective study is sometimes referred to as a prospective cohort study. This is usually a study involving a group, in which the participants are enrolled for the study prior to them developing the outcome that is being studied. From the study in the question, the scientist enrolled 500 healthy adults, which means that when he enrolled them, they were healthy and had no issues whatsoever. It was after 6 years that he began to take their blood pressure, which is the outcome of the study.
Scientists at a pharmaceutical company are exposing bacteria to new "prototype" antibiotics. During antibiotic treatment, many of these bacteria swell and eventually lyse. These new antibiotics likely target which of the following in bacteria?a) mitochondria and energy productionb) nuclei and genetic materialc) peptidoglycan synthesis and cell wallsd) ribosomes and protein synthesis
Answer:
c) peptidoglycan synthesis and cell walls
Explanation:
Peptidoglycan is a main componen of cell walls, antibiotics (beta lactam) target is to breakp, and therefore produce lysis, this wall with the inhibition of peptideoglycan syntesis.
I hope you find this information useful and interesting! Good luck!
Answer:
c) peptidoglycan synthesis and cell wallsExplanation:
Based upon the information in the lesson match the description with the term from the SPORT acronym that it best discribes
The acronym SPORT (in terms of fitness training) stands for Specificity Progression Overload Reversibility Tedium
SPORT acronym (in terms of physical education) stands for Spirit, Perseverance, Optimism, Respect, Teamwork.
Explanation:
Specificity means that each sports activity is specific or unique to each person with regard to specific fitness, training and other factors required for that specific sport.
Progression depicts gradual improvement in the fitness level and sports activity and achievement level.
Overload refers to the muscle load that requires to build the muscles with respect to the sporting activity or fitness level
Reversibility refers to initiating training from the first in case of any injury or break in training
Tedium indicates a need for variety in fitness, exercise or sport training programs
Spirit increases the achievement in sports. Perseverance with optimism is required to win in the sports activity through repeated practices. good respect to the team members and efficient teamwork leads to victory in sports.
The nurse is providing nutrition-related teaching for the caregiver of a 6-year-old client. Which statement indicates the caregiver needs clarification or additional teaching?
Answer:
If the caregiver answers that the six year old shouldn't be allowed to leave the table if the plate is not completly finished.
Explanation:
It is more beneficial for a kid to have a good relation with food, it is not advisable for a caregiver to force a kid to eat. Some times kids need to have smaller portions and this does not mean it is bad for them. It better for them to have a meal feeling confortable, and no forcing to eat is neccesary .
During pregnancy, the enzyme that metabolizes caffeine (CYP1A2) becomes less effective. If this enzyme is less efficient at metabolizing caffeine during pregnancy, what is likely to happen to the half-life of caffeine for a pregnant woman?
Answer:
The correct answer would be - it would increase.
Explanation:
The enzyme that is responsible for the metabolism of caffeine is produced by the gene CYP1A2 that is code for this enzyme. The change or the variability of the activity of gene and the activity of the enzyme produce by the less activity of gene would affect the clearance of the caffeine from the body and cause disease.
The less efficient enzyme would affect the half life cycle as it will not able to reduce the activation energy which lead to the increase in the half life cycle of the caffeine.
Thus, the correct answer is - it would increase.
Answer:
it would increase
Explanation:
How are passive immunity and active immunity similar?
Answer:
This is the difference between passive and active immunity
Explanation:
Your patient is a 52-year-old male complaining of shortness of breath. He is sitting up, alert, and oriented and appears to be in moderate respiratory distress. He states that he "always gets a chest cold in the winter" and describes a three-week history of productive cough and increasing shortness of breath. Physical examination reveals coarse rhonchi to the upper lobes bilaterally, air movement is decreased in the bases, and his skin is cool with peripheral cyanosis. You note that he is overweight and describes an 18-pack-a-year smoking history. Based on these clinical exam findings, the most clinically relevant finding you might also expect is:
When respiratory insufficiency worsens, a person may not try to breathe at all or stop breathing altogether. On the other hand, folks who are having respiratory difficulty keep trying very hard to breathe.
What are the symptoms of moderate respiratory distress?The first sign of ARDS is typically shortness of breath. Additional symptoms of ARDS include low blood oxygen levels, rapid breathing, and clicking, bubbling, or rattling sounds created by the lungs during breathing. At any age, ARDS can manifest.
There is no particular test to diagnose ARDS. The physical examination, chest X-ray, and oxygen levels are used to make the diagnosis. Additionally, it's critical to rule out other illnesses and ailments that can manifest similar symptoms, such as some cardiac conditions.
Therefore, the most clinically relevant finding you might also expect is JVD, pedal edema, hepatic congestion.
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When public health officials were determining the amount of folate to add to grain products in the food supply for fortification, they most likely reviewed which of the following values for that particular vitamin for women of child-bearing age?
EAR - this is a specific group that requires T/F
Answer:
It is TRUE that When public health officials were determining the amount of folate to add to grain products in the food supply for fortification, they most likely reviewed the following values for that particular vitamin for women of child-bearing age.
EAR - this is a specific group that requires.
Explanation:
Child bearing age is from Puberty to menopause.
If children believe that their parents and teachers decide which behaviors are right and wrong, they can be said to be in which of Piaget’s stages?
Answer: Concrete operational stage
Explanation: Concrete operational stage is the third stage of Piaget’s theory, that deals with cognitive development of a child. Concrete operational stage comes after the preoperational stage, which occurs between 7-10 years of age. Optimum use of logic is usually seen during this period.
However, the ability to view things from another individual’s perspective is acquired by the child during this stage, regardless of what they think happened.