Trophic Level Transfer Efficiency TLTE= Energy transfer to next level/ energy recieved during transfer *100
or Trophic level transfer= Total energy during transfer- total energy transferred.
Matter transferred across each trophic level= Biomass from the higher trophic level-biomass in lower energy level
Explanation:
The total energy transfer in the trophic level is called as Trophic Level Transfer Efficiency (TLTE), it can be calculated as
TLTE= Energy transfer to next level/ energy received during transfer *100
We know that only 10 per-cent of energy is transferred between organisms at each trophic level.
The energy consumed by producers or consumers, only 10 percent is used up because nearly 90 per-cent energy gets dissipated as heat and used up in metabolic processes like digestion, reproduction respiration, cell division etc.
The matter in the trophic level is explained as the producers start the chain and lead to apex or tertiary consumers, during this process when apex dies the decomposers comes in action. They make nutrients from dead and decaying and from soil it goes to plants and hence to consumers, cycle goes on.
The gaseous carbon dioxide is a matter, will get fixed by sunlight in photosynthesis and passed on to consumers who made complex biomolecule as glucose and it goes on increasing in complex molecules eventually reaching to decomposers. We see that matter remains conserved and works within the system.
The biomass or matter transfer decreases with trophic level
In Lewis Carroll's Through the Looking-Glass, the Red Queen tells Alice, "in this place it takes all the running you can do to stay in the same place." How is this statement logically connected with the idea of evolution by natural selection?
A. As individuals evolve to better fit their environment, their environment also changes, subjecting the individuals to continually changing selective pressures.
B. Running in place is an important measure of optimal running speed, which is a strong correlate of survival and reproduction.
C. As populations evolve to become better adapted to their environments, their environments also change, subjecting the populations to continually changing selective pressures.
D. As individuals evolve through natural selection, they tend to develop characteristics that cause them to be less adapted to their environment.
E. As individuals evolve through natural selection, they tend to move to new places that are very similar to the places in which they originally evolved.
Answer:
Option A, As individuals evolve to better fit their environment, their environment also changes, subjecting the individuals to continually changing selective pressures.
Explanation:
By running the author means that an organism has to continuously evolve in order to cope up with the changing environmental conditions and hence survive and be fertile.
As per the theory of natural selection, an individual that is best fit to the prevailing environmental condition is able to survive and reproduce. And in order to be fit, an organism is required to evolve continuously.
Hence, option A is correct
The Red Queen's statement from "Through the Looking-Glass" relates to the Red Queen Hypothesis in evolution, emphasizing the constant adaptation required just to maintain a species' current status amidst changing environmental and competitive pressures, best exemplified in option C.
Explanation:In Lewis Carroll's Through the Looking-Glass, the Red Queen's statement, "in this place it takes all the running you can do to stay in the same place," logically connects with the idea of evolution by natural selection through the concept known as the Red Queen Hypothesis. This hypothesis suggests that organisms are constantly adapting and evolving not merely to gain an advantage, but to maintain their current status relative to the changing environment and the evolving species within it. This includes interactions between competing species, predators and prey, parasites and hosts.
The most accurate connection to this concept is seen in option C: As populations evolve to become better adapted to their environments, their environments also change, subjecting the populations to continually changing selective pressures. This encompasses the idea that adaptation is not only about improvement in a static context but is also about maintaining relative fitness in a constantly evolving ecological landscape.
Therefore, the Red Queen's phrase embodies the perpetual arms race in nature, where species must continuously evolve simply to maintain their place in the ecosystem, facing new challenges and adapting to changes, which may include competitors, predators, or environmental shifts.
Sally, age 28, recently married John, age 45. They would like to have a child, but they are concerned that they may be at high risk to have a child with a chromosomal abnormality, like Down’s syndrome, because of John’s age. What is their genetic counselor likely to tell them?
Answer:
The doctor will talk to the couple about having a child at this age. As there is a huge age gap in between these two partners.
The female is of age 28 and the male is of age 45. At such an age there are chances that the child borne can suffer from different genetic disorders but not by down syndrome.
This is so because the Down syndrome occurs when the age of female is more than 30 or 35 years of age.
A genetic counselor would likely tell Sally and John that while John's age may slightly increase their risk of having a child with a chromosomal abnormality, the overall risk remains relatively low. They would also discuss various genetic testing options available to help them make informed decisions.
Explanation:Sally and John's concern about potential chromosomal abnormalities in their child due to John's age can be addressed by their genetic counselor. While maternal age is a well-known factor that can increase the risk of having a child with a chromosomal abnormality, such as Down’s syndrome, the effect of paternal age is not as striking and remains a topic of ongoing research. Some studies suggest that increasing paternal age might be linked to an increased risk of certain rare birth defects or psychiatric conditions, but the overall risk remains relatively low.
Therefore, the genetic counselor is likely to advise them that although John's age might slightly increase the risk of certain conditions, the overall risk remains low, and there are genetic testing options before and during pregnancy to assess the health status of their potential child. Ultimately, the decision on whether or when to have a child may take into account a variety of individual and combined health, lifestyle, and personal factors.
Learn more about Genetic Counseling here:https://brainly.com/question/31833913
#SPJ3
Assuming no crossing over between the gene in question and the centromere, during what phase of meiosis do alleles segregate?
Answer:
During Anaphase stage
Explanation:
Meiosis is the type of cell division employed during gamete formation when each resulting gamete (daughter cell) has their chromosomal number reduced by half. Meiosis occurs in a two step division; Meiosis I and II. Meiosis I involves the separation of homologous chromosomes (similar but non-identical chromosomes received from each parent) while Meiosis II involves separation of sister chromatids (replicated chromosomes).
Alleles are present on the chromosomes which segregate or separate during the anaphase stage. Alleles received from each parent are separated in Anaphase I of meiosis I, which the identical replicated alleles are separated in anaphase of meiosis II.
The phase of meiosis in which the alleles segregate is during ANAPHASE I.
Meiosis is a cell division in which a parent cell divides twice and thus generates four germinal cells having half the genetic material.Meiosis can be divided into two division steps: Meiosis I and Meiosis II.Each one of these stages can in run divided into Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase (in Anaphase I stage alleles segregate to opposite poles) and Telophase.In conclusion, the phase of meiosis in which the alleles segregate is during ANAPHASE I.
Learn more in:
https://brainly.com/question/1757508
A client with chronic open-angle glaucoma is now presenting with eye pain and intraocular pressure of 50 mm Hg. An immediate iridotomy is scheduled. Which of the following describes the desired effects of this procedure?
asked Oct 13, 2016 in Nursing by Federico
A) Reverse optic nerve damage
B) Restore vision
C) Improve outflow drainage
D) To relieve pain
Answer:
The correct answer is - option C.
Explanation:
Iridotomy is a procedure which is used to treat condition like narrow angle glaucoma and chronic open angle glaucoma, angle closure glaucoma and other chronic glaucoma conditions. In many cases iridotomy is needed to be performed immediately.
Iridotomy procedure in this case is helpful as it is improve the outflow of the drainage which is causing the intraocular pressure which is 50 mm in this case and also will help in reducing the pain.
Thus, the correct answer is - option C.
Three lab groups carried out an experiment to identify the correct molarities for five solutions. Each unknown contained one of the following sucrose concentrations: 0.0 M, 0.2 M, 0.4 M, 0.6 M, 0.8 M, and 1.0 M. Each data entry represents the average of 3 sample replications of 1 cm3 sweet potato cubes expressed as percent change in mass after an overnight (24 hr) soak in the unknown solutions. From the data given, which statement most accurately describes what is occurring in response to a particular unknown solution.
A) Unknown solution E contains the highest concentration of sucrose and the change in mass is due to the active transport of sucrose into the cell in exchange for water molecules.
B) Osmosis of water molecules from unknown solution A likely caused the increase in mass observed.
C) Passive transport of sucrose out of the potato cells explains the change in mass observed for unknown solution F.
D) Unknown solution C represents a sucrose molarity slightly lower than the molarity of sweet potato cells, thus water is transported out of the cells.
Answer:
Osmosis of water molecules from unknown solution A likely caused the increase in mass observed.
Explanation:
Osmosis can be described as a process in which water molecules move from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration along a concentration gradient. So this process does not require energy.
As we observed that there was an increase in the mass of the sweet potato, we can infer that this increase in mass occurred due to osmosis as the concentration of water was more outside the cell as compared to inside of the cell.
The correct statement is B) Osmosis of water molecules from unknown solution A likely caused the increase in mass observed.
Explanation:The correct statement that describes what is occurring in response to a particular unknown solution is B) Osmosis of water molecules from unknown solution A likely caused the increase in mass observed.
Osmosis is the movement of water molecules from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration through a semi-permeable membrane. In this case, the unknown solution A likely had a lower sucrose concentration compared to the sweet potato cells, causing water to move into the cells and resulting in an increase in mass.
This conclusion can be drawn because osmosis occurs when there is a difference in solute concentrations on either side of a semi-permeable membrane, and water moves to equalize the concentration.
Learn more about Osmosis here:https://brainly.com/question/33306139
#SPJ3
Sexual selection favors individuals with traits that increase their ability to obtain mates, such as mating calls in crickets. Using this example, propose a scenario where sexual selection could contribute to divergence in sympatric speciation.male(s) / female(s) / cool forest floor / warm forest canopyVariation in ________ calls could occur, such as a lower-pitched call at the _______ and a higher-pitched call in the _______. _______ in the _______ could start to prefer _______ with lower-pitched calls, and ________ in the _________ could start to prefer _________ with higher-pitched calls, creating genetic isolation. Over time, genetic divergence could occur between the two populations.
Answer:
variation in male calls could occur, such as a lower-pitched call at the cool forest floor and a higher-pitched call in the warm forest canopy. Females in the forest floor could start to prefer males with lower-pitched calls, and females in the canopy could start to prefer males with higher-pitched calls, creating genetic isolation. Over time, genetic divergence could occur between the two populations.
Explanation:
To complte this exercise, you should fill in the blanks with the correct phrase taken from the options;
male(s) / female(s) / cool forest floor / warm forest canopy
Final answer:
Variation in mating calls related to different ecological niches like the forest floor and canopy could lead to female preference for specific calls, resulting in genetic isolation and sympatric speciation.
Explanation:
Sexual selection favors characteristics that improve an organism's chances of mating and producing offspring. It can lead to divergence in sympatric speciation, even in cases where different populations of the same species share the same geographic area but occupy different ecological niches, such as the cool forest floor and the warm forest canopy. Here is a proposed scenario:
Variations in mating calls could occur, such as a lower-pitched call on the cool forest floor and a higher-pitched call on the warm forest canopy. Females on the cool floor could start to prefer males with lower-pitched calls, and females in the canopy could start to prefer males with higher-pitched calls, creating genetic isolation. Over time, genetic divergence could occur between the two populations, leading to reproductive isolation and potentially the formation of new species.
an electrical connection between an electrical circuit or equioment and the earth is called? load-ground-neutral
Answer:
the correct answer is Ground
Explanation:
Grounding is the process of immediate discharge of the electrical current directly to the earth with the use of low resistance electrical wire. grounding is used in order to prevent electrical shock in case of failure of the insulation of electrical appliances. it helps to keep prevent the damages caused by sudden change in voltage in electrical appliances. Grounding is also used to prevent electrical lighting in tall buildings by the use of arrestors placed at highest point of buildings.Final answer:
An electrical connection to the earth in a circuit or equipment is known as an earth/ground connection. It ensures safety by providing a low-resistance path to the earth and consists of three main types: the neutral wire grounding, the case grounding via the green earth/ground wire, and an alternative path through an earth spike.
Explanation:
An electrical connection between an electrical circuit or equipment and the earth is called earth/ground. This earth/ground connection provides a low-resistance path directly to the earth, which is vital for safety and circuit functionality. There are typically three types of earth/ground connections in electrical systems:
The first connection is via the neutral wire, which is connected to the earth at the power source and at the user's location, ensuring that the neutral wire remains at zero volts relative to the earth.The second type is the connection to the case of the appliance through the green earth/ground wire, which guarantees that the appliance's case remains at zero volts.The third type supplies an alternative path through the earth for completing the circuit – this could be an additional earth spike at the building's location.The live or hot wire, referred to as "live/hot", provides the voltage and current to operate the appliance, while the neutral wire acts as the return path for the current. A three-prong plug typically represents this three-wire system in a pictorial version, safely bringing electricity to an appliance.
During pregnancy a woman's blood volume increases to accommodate the growing fetus to the point that vital signs may remain within normal range without showing signs of shock until the woman has lost what percentage of her blood volume?
Answer:
The correct answer is - 40%.
Explanation:
The condition of the shock in an individual occur if she experienced the blood loss 40 % or more of her total blood pressure during pregnancy as she require enough amount of blood for the essential body organs to function.
As the fetus grow the women's blood volume is also increases to accommodate accordingly. This condition leads to blood loss of the mother. The critical limit is 40% of total blood.
Thus, the correct answer is - 40%
A recent commercial advertised for a wristband that claimed to restore health and balance by taking advantage of natural frequencies of your biofield. It supports its claim by showing several people first struggling to balance without the wristband and then balancing fine with the wristband. Why should you be skeptical of the claims made in this ad?
Answer:
The answer is - It was not a controlled experiment
Explanation:
A control experiment can be defined as that in which the all variable is kept constant and intact and then used as a standard of comparison or measurement to the experimental component.The commercial showing several people initially struggling to balance without the wristband and then balancing fine with the wrist band is not a controlled experiment.
Claims made in the ad promoting a wristband for health and balance should be questioned as they are not based on controlled scientific research or recognized scientific principles. The experiment shown in the ad does not include a control group, and the principles referenced are often associated with pseudoscience.
Explanation:You should be skeptical of the claims made in this advertisement as they lack important factors that contribute to scientific credibility, such as controlled variables and peer-reviewed research. The concept mentioned, 'natural frequencies of your biofield,' is not grounded in science and typically used by companies selling pseudoscientific products. Claims of health improvement and balance enhancement should be supported by rigorous scientific research, with results published in established peer-reviewed journals. Moreover, the ad performs an experiment that doesn't compare the wristband's affects with a control group, thus it's hard to tell if the improvements in balance are due to the product or perhaps a placebo effect.
Learn more about skeptical here:https://brainly.com/question/37558672
#SPJ11
Which one of the following is not associated with nitrate exposure in humans?
a. goiter.
b. blue baby syndrome.
c. risk of developing insulin-dependent diabetes.
d. brittle bones.
Answer:
The correct answer is d. brittle bones.
Explanation:
Brittle bone disease is a genetic disorder that causes the bone to become fragile that easily breaks. It is also known as osteogenesis imperfecta which means imperfect bones.
In this disease, a gene that makes type 1 collagen becomes defected. Type 1 collagen is an important protein that is required to make bones. This defective gene mainly comes from parents. So brittle bone disease is not associated with nitrate exposure in humans while goiter, blue baby syndrome, and risk of developing insulin-dependent diabetes are associated.
Final answer:
Brittle bones are not associated with nitrate exposure in humans. Nitrate exposure has been connected with health concerns such as blue baby syndrome and potentially goiter and insulin-dependent diabetes, but not directly with brittle bones.
Explanation:
The answer to which of the following is not associated with nitrate exposure in humans is d. brittle bones. While exposure to nitrates has been linked to a number of health concerns, brittle bones is not commonly associated with nitrate exposure. Exposure to high levels of nitrates is more notably connected with blue baby syndrome (where it interferes with oxygen delivery in infants' bloodstream), and there has been some research suggesting a possible link between nitrates and the development of certain health issues like goiter and insulin-dependent diabetes, although some of these links are subject to ongoing research and debate.
Other conditions associated with environmental factors during prenatal development include lead poisoning, exposure to mercury, and iodine deficiency, which can cause conditions like cretinism and cognitive impairments. In infants, blue baby syndrome is a serious health concern that has been linked to nitrate exposure from drinking water containing nitrate levels exceed the maximum contaminant level (MCL).
You are handed a model of a protein. It has a three-dimensional shape, and by twisting it, you can see that there is only one polypeptide chain in the model. You can see two alpha helices lined up next to one another in the model. From this evidence, you are looking at what level of protein structure? Tertiary T/F
Final answer:
True. The protein model described with a three-dimensional shape and two alpha helices represents the tertiary structure of a protein, involving complex 3D folding of a single polypeptide chain.
Explanation:
Based on the description provided by the student, the model of the protein with a single polypeptide chain and two alpha helices represents the tertiary structure of a protein. The tertiary structure is known for the large-scale three-dimensional shape formed from the folding and twisting of the polypeptide. Primary structure is defined by the sequence of amino acids. Secondary structure arises from local folding into common patterns such as alpha helices and beta-pleated sheets. Tertiary structure, on the other hand, involves a complex 3D construction due to the interactions between amino acid residues that are distant in the primary sequence, including hydrogen bonds, hydrophobic interactions, and disulfide bridges. A protein's quaternary structure occurs when multiple polypeptide chains, or subunits, come together to form a complete protein complex, which is not the case here as described by the student.
A sample of adults with generalized anxiety disorder are participating in a Stroop task in which threat-related words are presented in different colors on a computer screen. As compared with adults without an anxiety disorder, the sample should take __________.
Answer:
The sample will take longer to name the colors of the words
Explanation:
It is normal to feel anxious once in a while. However people with Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) are constantly worried, restless and have trouble concentrating.
The Stroop task is a psychological test where name of a color is written with a different ink. This will cause a delay in response time due to mismatch of stimuli.
Therefore, the sample which consists of adults with GAD will take longer to name the colors of the words.
As a result of stress, the anterior pituitary releases ________, which stimulates release of hormones from the adrenal cortex that retain sodium and water, increase blood sugar, and begin breaking down fats.A) thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)B) growth hormoneC) ADH D) ACTH
Answer:
ACTH
Explanation:
Corticotrophs from anterior pituitary gland secretes adrenocorticotropic hormone under stress conditions. ACTH stimulates the cortex of the adrenal gland to secrete glucocorticoids. Cortisol is the main glucocorticoid secreted by the adrenal cortex. This hormone triggers the break down of fats and proteins as well as stimulate gluconeogenesis. All these physiological responses prepare the body to combat stress or emergency conditions.
Answer: Option D) ACTH is the he correct answer.
Explanation: Corticotropin-releasing hormone and vasopressin are responsible for the release of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), which in result have effect on the release of hormone from adrenal cortex.
Cortisol is the hormone produce in response of ACTH effect on adrenal cortex. In the condition of stress; metabolic effects, nervous system effects are produced.
Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder. The frequency of homozygotes with this disorder is 0.0001. What percentage of the population is heterozygous?
Answer: The percentage of heterozygous population is 99%
Explanation:
According to the Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium equation, the homozygous recessive individuals are represented by the q^2 term
Thus, q^2 = 0.0001
q = √0.0001 = 0.01 or 1%
Now, to calculate the percentage of heterozygous individuals in the population: subtract percentage of homozygotes from 100%
i.e 100% - 1% = 99%
Therefore, the percentage of heterozygous population is 99%. Also, this means 1 out of 100 people in the population suffer from Phenylketonuria (PKU).
Final answer:
The percentage of the population that is heterozygous for Phenylketonuria (PKU), given a homozygote frequency of 0.0001, is 1.98%. This calculation is based on the Hardy-Weinberg principle.
Explanation:
The student has asked about the percentage of the population that is heterozygous for Phenylketonuria (PKU), given that the frequency of homozygotes with this disorder is 0.0001. To solve for the heterozygous frequency, we can use the Hardy-Weinberg principle. This principle states that p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1, where p and q represent the frequency of the dominant and recessive alleles, respectively. Given that q2 (homozygous recessive) equals 0.0001, we can calculate q as the square root of 0.0001, which is 0.01. Therefore, p (frequency of the dominant allele) equals 1 - 0.01 = 0.99. The frequency of heterozygotes (2pq) is then calculated as 2 * 0.99 * 0.01 = 0.0198 or 1.98% of the population.
This shows that 1.98% of the population is heterozygous for PKU. Such individuals carry one mutant allele for PKU but generally do not exhibit symptoms of the disorder. However, they can pass the allele to their offspring, contributing to the genetic diversity and the occurrence of the disorder in the population.
Imagine a hypothetical habitat where there are many simple and complex multicellular organisms of roughly the same size. A new predator is introduced into the habitat that feeds by taking bites of the organisms, rather than consuming them entirely. Given this, which of the statements is most likely?
Answer:
Complex multicellular organisms will suffer more, because vital differentiated cells that the rest of the organism requires will be lost.
Explanation:
As the new producer will take bites of organisms, the complex organisms will most likely be harmed more from such a mode of nutrition. This is because each part of a complex organism will be made up of vital differentiated cells which will be specialized to perform its function. Loss of such part will lead to certain permanent kind of disabilities in the complex organism.
The food web illustrated above shows plants and animals, but does not indicate bacteria. If bacteria were truly missing from this food web, what is the most likely effect on the community?
Answer: Bacterias are Decomposer and they complete the food web they turn inorganic waste like decay plant and animals into organic material. They help in returning nutrient to the soil for use by autotrophs, and which would now lead to a new food wen.
Explanation:
What tissue has lacunae, calcium salts, and blood vessels? Select one: a. fibrocartilaginous tissue b. areolar tissue c. bone (osseous tissue) d. cartilage tissue
Answer:
c. bone (osseous tissue)
Explanation:
The extracellular matrix of the bone tissue consists of an organic component and an inorganic component.
The organic component includes Collagen , proteoglycans and glycoprotiens, While the inorganic component contains calcium and phopsphorus. The cells are present in the lacunae situated betwen the lamellae and contain a number of oblong spaces.
It also contains blood vessels as a typical long bons is supplied by a nutrient artery , periosteal vessels and epiphyseal arteries.
Hence C is the right answer.
Bone (osseous tissue) has lacunae, calcium salts, and is highly vascularized, distinguishing it from other tissue types like cartilage and areolar tissue.
Explanation:The tissue characterized by having lacunae, calcium salts, and blood vessels is bone (osseous tissue). Bone tissue is a type of connective tissue that has a rigid extracellular matrix with mostly collagen fibers embedded in a mineralized ground substance containing hydroxyapatite—a form of calcium phosphate. This combination contributes to the bone's hardness and its ability to support the body and protect internal organs.
Within this matrix, bone cells, or osteocytes, reside in small cavities known as lacunae. Bone tissue is highly vascularized, meaning it has a good blood supply, which is necessary for nutrient delivery and waste removal. This vascularization also allows bone tissue to recover from injuries more efficiently than non-vascularized tissues like cartilage.
Pls hep me i don't understand!!!!!!
In the image below, does Group A or Group B have a stronger gravitational force between the objects in the group? Give one supporting detail for your answer. Two sets of circles. In Group A, the distance between the two objects is 5 m. In Group B, the distance between the two objects is 10 m.
Answer:
Group A.
Explanation:
The bigger 2 objects are, the more gravitation they exert upon each other. However, since size is unknown, you can assume that group A has stronger gravitation, since 2 equal-size objects put closer together have a stronger pull than 2 objects placed far apart.
Think about the earth orbiting the sun. It's in a good zone of not flying into the sun and also not flying away. If it got substantially closer, it would eventually just run straight into the sun.
What type of interaction between two chemicals causes one chemical that is not toxic to become more toxic?
Answer:
Potentiating effects
Explanation:
In medical field, Potentiating refers to the enhancement of potency or effect of any drug, chemical or treatment method.
In case of chemicals, potentiating effects are caused when one drug or chemical comes in contact with another drug and chemical and their combined pharmacologic effect is higher than the combined or individual response of each drug. For example – Pharmacologic effect of alcohol and sedative and diazepam potentiate the effect of alcohol.
The lumper potatoes that were grown in Ireland during the 1800s were essentially clones of one another. They all had the same genetic makeup. So, when a potato blight disease began infecting the potatoes, it spread to all potatoes equally. How could greater genetic diversity have lessened the devastation of the potato blight? A. Some potatoes would be more likely to have a genetic resistance to the disease and survive. B. The potatoes would have been able to trade genes so that they could survive the disease. C. More of the potatoes would have been edible varieties. D. None of the potatoes would have been infected by the disease.
Answer:
some potatoes would be more likely to have genetic resistance to the disease and survive.
Greater genetic diversity could have lessened the devastation of the potato blight by allowing some potatoes to have genetic resistance to the disease and survive.
Explanation:Greater genetic diversity could have lessened the devastation of the potato blight in several ways:
A. Some potatoes would be more likely to have a genetic resistance to the disease and survive.B. The potatoes would have been able to trade genes so that they could survive the disease.By having a greater genetic diversity, there would be a higher chance of some potatoes having natural resistance to the disease, and they could pass on their resistance to future generations through gene exchange.
Learn more about Genetic diversity and potato blight here:https://brainly.com/question/32870863
#SPJ2
Which of the following best describes how cleaning products like chlorine, hydrogen peroxide, and soap influence the infectious rate of a virus on a surface as discussed in the article?
Group of answer choices
These cleaning products are not effective against reducing viral infections. Only alcohol based produces will cause the viruses to be no longer infectious.
These cleaning products break apart the DNA or RNA of the viruses causing them to no longer be capable of reproducing.
These cleaning products are used to wash way the viral particles from the surface, but do not disrupt the components of the viruses themselves.
These cleaning products break apart the capsules of the viruses causing them to no longer be capable of infecting an individual.
Answer:
These cleaning products break apart the capsules of the viruses causing them to no longer be capable of infecting an individual.
Explanation:
Bleach oxidises organic molecules. This causes proteins to become denatured, or lose their shape. The viral capsule containing the DNA is a coat made up of proteins that is required for the virus to become infectious. Therefore, following bleach treatment, the viral protein capsule become oxidised, cause them to loses their shape, meaning the virus can no longer infect individuals.
Cleaning products like chlorine, hydrogen peroxide, and soap disrupt the capsules of viruses, making them unable to infect. Chlorine and hydrogen peroxide are strong oxidizing agents that damage the protein and lipid structures of the virus, while soap disrupts the fats in the virus shell.
Explanation:Cleaning products like chlorine, hydrogen peroxide, and soap have a significant effect on the infectious rate of a virus on a surface. These cleaning products function by breaking apart the capsules of the viruses, which renders them unable to infect an individual.
For instance, chlorine and hydrogen peroxide are powerful oxidizing agents, which can break the protein and lipid structures that make up the virus's envelope or capsid. When this outer structure is damaged or destroyed, the virus loses its ability to attach to host cells and start an infection.
Soap, on the other hand, disrupts the fats in a virus shell, effectively inactivating the virus by making it incapable of binding to human cells. Therefore, these cleaning products effectively reduce the risk of viral infection by physically destroying viruses present on surfaces.
Learn more about Effect of Cleaning Products on Viruses here:https://brainly.com/question/33834010
#SPJ3
what is the substance found in many plants that is not considered a nutrient but has many healthful benefits?
Answer:
The correct answer is phytochemicals.
Explanation:
Phytochemicals refer to the components, which are generated by plants. They are witnessed in vegetables, fruits, beans, grains, and other plants. Some of these phytochemicals are considered to protect cells from destruction, which could result in cancer. The phytochemicals are not considered as nutrients, but possesses many health benefits:
1. It helps in ceasing carcinogens from attacking cells.
2. It helps to prevent the generation of potential cancer-resulting substances.
3. It assists the cells to prevent and eradicate any kind of cancer-like modifications.
Some of the phytochemicals, which are considered as the most beneficial ones are polyphenols in tea, beta-carotene and other carotenoids in vegetables and fruits, and isothiocyanates found in cruciferous vegetables.
The statement "the ability to acquire and use knowledge, solve problems and reason in the abstract, and adapt to new situations in the environment" most closely relates to a description of:
A) learning style.
B) intelligence.
C) achievement.
D) field dependence/independence.
Final answer:
The described ability to adapt and reason abstractly is most closely related to intelligence, particularly fluid intelligence, which involves problem-solving and recognizing complex relationships.
Explanation:
The statement "the ability to acquire and use knowledge, solve problems and reason in the abstract, and adapt to new situations in the environment" most closely relates to a description of intelligence. Intelligence includes the capacity for logic, understanding, self-awareness, learning, emotional knowledge, reasoning, planning, creativity, critical thinking, and problem-solving. It is often associated with successful educational, occupational, economic, and social outcomes, and is more than just learning style, achievement, or field dependence/independence. Fluid intelligence, specifically, is characterized by the ability to see complex relationships and solve problems, rather than merely recalling information or creating new products.
Which of the following best describes a biodiversity "hotspot"? Question 18 options:
A hotspot is an area near volcanic vents on the ocean floor where the species diversity is high.
A hotspot is an area where the rate of species extinction is high.
A hotspot is a region where species diversity is high but threatened by habitat loss.
A hotspot is a region where large numbers of animals are brought together into an enclosure.
Answer:
Which of the following best describes a biodiversity "hotspot"?
Biodiversity hotspot is a region where large numbers of animals are brought together into an enclosure
Explanation:
When we are talking about biodiversity hotspot, it entails a concentrated region where living organisms are brought together. It is most times an enclosure that encompasses so many living organism
Based on radiometric dating, the oldest rocks scientists have found on Earth are 4.6 billion years old, but not ALL rocks are that old. Why might some rocks be 4.6 billion years old, and other rocks are only 2 billion years old, while yet others are only a few thousands years old?
Answer:
The answer to your question is below
Explanation:
Because similar to living things, some rocks are formed and it takes a long period to degrade them. During this period new rocks are born, some of these rocks can react with some compounds of the environment and can form new rocks or can be degraded.
What I try to say is that rock formation takes a lot of time and while some rocks disappear new rocks are created.
Final answer:
Radiometric dating is used to determine the age of rocks on Earth. The age of a rock is determined by the isotopes present in the rock and their decay rate. Through this method, scientists have found that the oldest rocks on Earth are around 4.6 billion years old, but not all rocks are that old.
Explanation:
Radiometric dating is used to determine the age of rocks on Earth. Through this method, scientists have found that the oldest rocks on Earth are around 4.6 billion years old. However, not all rocks are that old. Some rocks may only be 2 billion years old, while others may be only a few thousand years old.
The reason for this variation in rock ages is due to the process of rock formation and geological events that have occurred over time. Rocks are formed through different processes such as volcanic activity, metamorphism, and sedimentation. The age of a rock is determined by the isotopes present in the rock and their decay rate.
For example, radioactive isotopes such as uranium-238 decay at a predictable rate to form daughter isotopes. By measuring the ratio of parent and daughter isotopes in a rock, scientists can calculate its age. The older rocks would have higher ratios of daughter isotopes, indicating a longer period of decay.
While conducting experiments with E. coli, Meselson and Stahl established that during DNA replication, each of the two strands that
compose the double helix were used as a template for the new strands of DNA. The scientists described the replication method as
semi-conservative. Explain what this means in terms of DNA replication
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Base pairing would result in two double-stranded DNA molecules that would include one parental or old strand and one daughter or new strand.
The term 'semi-conservative' in DNA replication refers to the creation of new DNA molecules having one original strand and one new strand, hence conserving half of the original DNA molecule.
Explanation:Meselson and Stahl's experiments with E. coli established the semi-conservative model of DNA replication. According to this model, each of the two strands in the DNA double helix acts as a template for a new strand. After replication, each DNA molecule consists of one original (or parent) strand and one newly synthesized strand. This process ensures that the new molecules are identical copies of the original DNA molecule. The term 'semi-conservative' is used because half of the original DNA molecule is conserved in every new DNA molecule.
Learn more about semi-conservative DNA replication here:https://brainly.com/question/890465
#SPJ2
When Jackie experienced her fourth miscarriage and was soon after diagnosed with cervical cancer, her doctor asked if she knew anything about her mother's pregnancy with her. The doctor likely suspects that the drug __________ is behind Jackie's problemss
Explanation:
Diethylstilboestrol, commonly known as DES or thalidomide was widely prescribed as an anti-miscarriage drug for 30 years between 1943 and 1973.
The production and sale of this drug was banned due to its carcinogenic side effects. It was also discovered that the effects of this drug can also manifest themselves in people whose mothers were administered with the drug.
If Jackie's mother consumed DES while she was pregnant with Jackie,, It is probable that Jackie's miscarriages and her cancer are an indirect effect of the banned drug.
The initial statement of the ____________ hypothesis proposed that over time a bacterial endosymbiont of an ancestral cell in the eukaryotic lineage lost its ability to live independently.
Answer: Endosymbiotic
Explanation:
The initial statement of the endosymbiont states that over a period of time the bacterial endosymbiont of the ancestral cell in the eukaryotic lineage loss the ability to live independently.
They can either become a chloroplast if the endosymbiont bacteria is photosynthetic or it can become a mitochondria if bacteria uses aerobic respiration.
hence, the correct answer is endosymbiotic.
The video describes a coevolutionary arms race between the Plasmodium parasite and its human hosts.
True or false? One example of a coevolutionary arms race is when faster deer evolve and favor wolves and cougars that have stronger eyesight and senses of smell.
true
Archaeplastids, which include red and green algae and land plants, are thought to have descended from a heterotrophic protist that engulfed a(n) _____.
One example of a coevolutionary arms race is when faster deer evolve and favor wolves and cougars that have stronger eyesight and senses of smell is a true statement.
Archaeplastids, which include red and green algae and land plants, are thought to have descended from a heterotrophic protist that engulfed a cyanobacterium.
Explanation:
Co-evolution leads to two species influencing the adaptations of each other over time. Co-evolutionary arms race evolves reciprocal adaptation between species are repeated cyclically.
Since the preys like the deer are faster, the predators have to be extra skillful to be better hunters. Hence, the predators like the wolves and cougar need to adapt themselves with better eyesight and sense of smell.
Archeaplastids are supergroups of eukaryotes. As per evolutionary lines, arecheaplastids were created due to endosymbiotic relationship between an eukaryotic cell and a cynabacterium which resulted in eukaryote engulfing the cyanobacterium.
Starting from the wild mustard Brassica oleracea, breeders have created the strains known as Brussels sprouts, broccoli, kale, and cabbage. Therefore, which of the following statements is correct?
A) In this wild mustard, there is enough heritable variation to permit these different varieties.
B) Heritable variation is low in wild mustard—otherwise this wild strain would have different characteristics.
C) Natural selection is rare in wild populations of wild mustard.
D) In wild mustard, most of the variation is due to differences in soil or other aspects of the environment.
Answer:
A) In this wild mustard, there is enough heritable variation to permit these different varieties.
Explanation:
Brussels sprouts, broccoli, kale, and cabbage were developed by breeders by the process of artificial selection of one or other genetic traits. The processes of natural and artificial selection require the presence of genetic variations in the population to act upon. Brassica oleracea had the variations such as overlapping leaves (for cabbage), storage stem (for kohlrabi), large axillary buds (for Brussels), etc. These strains of Brassica with desired genetic traits were selected and bred for several generations to produce the above-mentioned strains.
Among the options given, the correct one is 'In wild mustard, there is sufficient heritable variation to allow for the creation of different varieties such as Brussels sprouts, broccoli, kale, and cabbage.' This is possible due to the high genetic variability in wild mustard, which enables selective breeding.
Explanation:The correct statement amongst the given options is 'A) In this wild mustard, there is enough heritable variation to permit these different varieties.' This is because, through the process of selective breeding, breeders have been able to isolate and enhance certain traits in wild mustard (Brassica oleracea) leading to the creation of different strains like Brussels sprouts, broccoli, kale, and cabbage. This would not be possible if heritable variation was low in this plant. Therefore, this plant must have a high genetic variability which allows breeders to selectively breed for specific traits, leading to the development of these cultivars.
Learn more about Heritable Variation here:https://brainly.com/question/34241039
#SPJ3