Answer:
Kinesics
Explanation:
The theory of Kinesics was developed by Ray L. Birdwhistell. According to this theory, kinesics is the study of body movements. In other words, it can be defined as an interpretation of non-verbal behavioral movements.
Birdwhistell claimed that all body movements or postures are not accidental, hence, they have the meaning of their own.
In the given case, wrinkling of the nose, according to the theory, is an example of kinesics, because wrinkling of the nose conveys the meaning that the food smelled bad.
Hargrave and Hiatt (1987) found that people portray themselves more __________ in face-to-face interviews than on personality tests, resulting in more________________.
Answer:
Check explanation. The ones written in capital letters in the first paragraph.
Explanation:
Okay let us fill in the gap from the question above;
''Hargrave and Hiatt (1987) found that people portray themselves more POSITIVELY in face-to-face interviews than on personality tests, resulting in more POOR RISKS OF BEING HIRED''.
Hargrave and Hiatt work was on recruitment; the Psychology part of recruitment for law enforcement agencies especially the Police force,they reviewed Psychological test in the recruitment of police officers. Hargrave and Hiatt work also deal with the mental health of workers/employers in workplaces. Hargrave and Hiatt suggested that in order to get more information, they should use a self report measure of personality known as the California Psychological Inventory.
Researchers hypothesize that granitic soil is the ideal construction material for the desert tortoise because it is not so hard that it makes burrowing difficult or so soft that it could cause tunnels to collapse.
A. so hard that it makes burrowing difficult or so soft that it could cause
B. hard enough to make burrowing difficult or soft enough as to cause
C. so hard as to make burrowing difficult or soft enough so it causes
D. as hard as to make burrowing difficult or as soft as to cause
E. too hard, making burrowing difficult, nor too soft, so as to cause
Answer:
A). So hard that it makes burrowing difficult or so soft that it could cause.
Explanation:
As per the question, the correct revision of the given phrase is displayed through 'option A' as it correctly employs the idiomatic phrase and uses 'that' correctly to indicate the results or outcomes('So hard that it makes burrowing difficult' or 'so soft that it could cause') of an action. The other options either carries parallelism error in presenting the degrees equally('hard enough' and 'soft enough as' in option B', 'so hard as' and 'so enough so' in option C) or fails to portray the comparison inappropriately(options D(no use of noun after 'as hard as' to which it compares and in option E('too hard' to what is not elaborated). Thus, option A is the correct answer.
What classification of government distinguishes between presidential and parliamentary government? who has power how much power a government has where power is located how power is distributed?
Answer:
1. How power is distributed.
There are two meanings of globalization: globalization as fact and process, and globalization as ideology and contested policy. What is the primary and neutral meaning of globalization as it is applicable to anthropology?
Answer:
The spread and connectedness of production, communication, and technologies across the world .
Explanation:
In anthropology, globalization is primarily understood as the intensification of worldwide social relations impacting local and distant events reciprocally, observed through long-term ethnographic studies focusing on the varied experiences of individuals and cultures.
The primary and neutral meaning of globalization in the context of anthropology refers to the intensification of worldwide social relations that link distant localities in such a way that local happenings are shaped by events occurring far away and vice versa.
Anthropologists use ethnographic studies to understand the impact of global processes on individuals and cultures, acknowledging the reorganization of time and space in such a way that the movements of peoples, ideas, and goods have become faster and more effortless.
Globalization is observed through various lenses, including economic, political, and cultural perspectives, without assuming it as 'natural and unavoidable' to avoid obscuring the construction and maintenance of power and privilege.
In essence, globalization in anthropology is seen as "...an intensification of global interconnectedness, suggesting a world full of movement and mixture, contact and linkages, and persistent cultural interaction and exchange" (Inda and Rosaldo, 2002: 2).
Anthropological research on globalization focuses on the experiential and varied effects these processes have on different people, further elaborating on the complexities and nuances of global interconnectedness.
Miss Jan De Jong is orderly, neat, fairly quiet, and shy. She enjoys reading in her spare time and belongs to a social club
that includes three librarians, nine real estate agents, and eight social workers. A tendency to conclude that Jan must be one
of the three librarians would illustrate the powerful influence of:
A) confirmation bias. D) the belief perseverance phenomenon.
B) the framing effect. E) the availability heuristic.
C) the representativeness heuristic.
Answer:
C) the representativeness heuristic.
Explanation:
Representativeness heuristic: In psychology, the term representativeness heuristic is referred to as the phenomenon which involves categorizing or organizing different objects based on the object's similarity assessment and within the category prototype, for example, cause and effects complement each other. The representativeness heuristic involves an easy computation and therefore referred to as a mental shortcut.
In the question above, the given statement represents the powerful influence of the representativeness heuristic.
Under __________ federalism, the national government pressures state governments to take on a certain policy by using mandates or funding.
Under Coercive federalism, the national government pressures state governments to take on a certain policy by using mandates or funding.
Explanation:The power division that occurs between the local, state and the national government is known as federalism. The power called supreme power of an independent state can have the power for the regulation of the problem that lies internally and cannot be controlled by any foreign countries.
For instance when the national government is ready for granting the federal highway money to the state on a condition that if the state agrees to rise the drinkage age as 21 is a coercive federalism. It is a form of federalism that always pressures the states to modify its policies through regulations, conditions with threats and mandatory rules.
Confusion of an event that happened to someone else with one that happened to you, or a belief that you remember something when it never really happened, is called ________.
Answer:
Confusion of an event that happened to someone else with one that happened to you, or a belief that you remember something when it never really happened, is called confabulation.
Explanation:
In psychology, confabulation is a memory error or disruption. Often caused by brain damage, confabulation is the memory gap that is filled inappropriately. The person forgets part of what happened to him/her and ends up fabricating a new memory or distorting information to fill in the gap. It is common for the person to feel confident about their recollection, not seeing it as faulty at all. Lying is not the person's intention, since he/she does not know their memory is distorted.
Heightened religious experiences and meditation can both lead to experiences of altered consciousness. Why is this the case?
Answer: Both practices allow practitioners to direct attention away from the self
Explanation: Heightened religious experiences and meditation are nothing more than ecstatic states that tend to be transcendental, that is, moving away from the material and elevating oneself to higher spheres of consciousness. Thus, one can reach an expanded or altered, alternative state of consciousness, which is different from the so-called normal state, a state when we are awake and fully aware of ourselves. When, during meditation and similar religious experiences, the practitioner moves away from himself, he moves away from the material that actually binds one's consciousness to reality or alertness. Each transcendental experience is a take-off to a state that is somewhat irrational. One of the common simpler examples is sleeping.
To create a balanced budget, one must make sure to spend as little as possible. pay credit card payments first. spend less than or equal to income. pay off debts first.
To create a balanced budget, one must make sure to spend less than or equal to income.
Explanation:
A budget is about planning finance for specific period of time. The planning may include sales volumes and revenues, resource quantities, costs and expenses and cash flows. The budget helps in forecasting income and expense.
The budget is framed based on the cash flow. The budget is of three types: balanced budget, surplus budget and deficit budget.
The budget is said to be balanced budget only if the revenue equals the expenditures. So to create the balanced budget an individual must spend less than or equal to his income.
Answer:
C. spend less than or equal to income
Hope this helps!!! :)
How were the Atlantic slave trade and American slavery different than previous versions of slavery on other continents?
Answer: slaves could gain freedom or move up in their family that they were a part of or society, could gain political places, in America and in the Atlantic slave trade they were degraded
Final answer:
The key differences of the Trans-Atlantic slave trade compared to earlier forms of slavery include its scale, the chattel slavery system where slaves were property with no rights, and inhumane treatment leading to high mortality rates.
Explanation:
The Trans-Atlantic slave trade was distinguished from earlier forms of slavery due to its sheer scale, the racial basis for enslavement, and the conditions of enslavement. This trade was tightly linked to the colonization of the New World, and the development of plantation economies that demanded large numbers of laborers. In contrast to some past instances of slavery, where enslaved individuals might have some legal rights or the possibility of manumission, African slavery in the New World was characterized by chattel slavery.
This meant that enslaved Africans were treated as personal property with no legal personhood, and this status could be inherited by their children. The process of enslavement was brutal, with captives being forcibly marched to coastal trading posts or 'feitorias' and subjected to inhumane conditions and high mortality rates, particularly during the Middle Passage, the voyage across the Atlantic to the Americas.
An article in this morning's issue of the State City Times describes an initiative to build new sidewalks and bicycle paths to improve residents' "physical and mental health and well-being." The initiative is MOST likely to require the professional advice of a _____ psychologist.
Answer:
Community
Explanation:
Community psychology is defined as one of the branches of psychology that encompass the study of a different person related to his or her community and therefore the ultimate effect of a particular community on these people.
Community psychologist is considered as those who practice in the field of community psychology and is responsible for researching on undesirable, problematic-situation, and unpleasant situations that can affect a person in a specific community and eventually help those people to make various improvements.
Many organizations use a computer program to scan applications for minimum qualifications. If an applicant does not meet the minimum requirements for the job, the applicant is automatically rejected. This saves many hours for the human resource staff and is an example of a benefit of using ______ in recruiting.
Answer: Smart technology
Explanation:
Smart technology is a self monitoring, analysing technology that gives details of a duty carried out as it's programmed to do.
using ""the four Ds"" to define abnormal behavior: A. allows us to include those who experience no distress. B. allows us to eliminate those who are merely eccentric. C. is still often vague and subjective. D. allows us to create diagnoses that are clear-cut and not debatable.
Answer:
Is still often vague and subjective
Explanation:
The “Four D's” represent deviance, dysfunction, distress, and danger and can very much help practitioners in determining DSM IV-TR disorder based on observed symptoms and reported traits and conditions. DSM-IV codes are found in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 4th Edition, Text Revision, also known as DSM-IV-TR, published by the American Psychiatric Association (APA) that covers all currently known mental disorders.
However the “Four D's” still remains unclear, somewhat ambiguous and subjective.
Final answer:
Option C is correct because defining abnormal behavior using "the four Ds" is often vague and subjective, reflecting the nuanced and complex nature of diagnosing mental disorders with tools like the DSM.
Explanation:
When using "the four Ds" to define abnormal behavior, which include Dysfunction, Distress, Deviance, and Danger, one major critique is that the criteria can often be vague and subjective (option C). While the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM) provides a systematic approach to diagnosing mental disorders, it is not without its controversies. Critics have pointed out that with each revision of the DSM, more behaviors are categorized as disorders (even "academic problems" now), suggesting an over-pathologization of human behaviors. Furthermore, it tends to have a Western focus in its diagnoses, potentially overlooking cultural differences in behavior and interpretation.
Moreover, there is no definitive criterion that separates disordered from non-disordered behavior, which can lead to diagnostic ambiguity. For example, the DSM approach allowed the bereavement exclusion to be removed from the criteria of major depressive disorder in the DSM-5, potentially leading to diagnosing normal grief as a mental illness. Choices A, B, and D are less accurate reflections of the complexities involved in diagnosing mental disorders because they either assume the criteria perfectly exclude non-disordered individuals or create entirely clear-cut diagnoses, which is not the case given the nuanced nature of human psychology.
The DSM remains a necessary tool as most insurance companies in the U.S. require a DSM diagnosis for therapy coverage. It is a comprehensive tool that provides a common language for professionals to discuss disorders, but it is also a point of contention regarding its broad and potentially subjective criteria.
Jonathan had tried cocaine when he was a school student and slowly started to use it regularly. He does odd jobs to earn money for buying cocaine. When he is unable to find jobs, he even robs people. Which of the following characteristics does Jonathan exhibit in this scenario?
Answer:
Psychological dependence
Explanation:
Psychological and emotional dependence is the process of a physical basis. All our complex behavior are the result of our emotional and psychological component. It is a myth to say that the mind and body are the dualistic processes for behavior. The psychological dependency is related to psychology which includes mind and body responsible for the behavior of a person. The psychological dependency describes the psychological and mental process which are related to the development and recovery of a person.
Thus here Jonathan had tried to use the cocaine in school due to peer pressure and after that, he continue-sly started this process. Even he started an odd job to earn money to buy the cocaine. He started to rob the people. This is an example of psychological dependency.
Jonathan shows signs of substance dependence or drug addiction, proven by his regular cocaine use and his desperation to obtain it. Additionally, his engagement in robbery shows criminal behavior.
Explanation:In the given scenario, Jonathan exhibits characteristics of substance dependence and criminal behavior. Substance dependence, also known as drug addiction, is a condition in which a person cannot control their use of a substance, despite facing adverse consequence. In this context, Jonathan's regular use of cocaine and his desperate ways to get money for it are clear indications of this. Furthermore, his acts of robbery reveal his involvement in criminal activities, likely as a side-effect of his addiction.
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Randy and Julie are a happily married couple. When they have a problem, they ask each other if their own perception of the situation is accurate, and if they understand the other’s feelings. This behavior is referred to by communication researchers as ?
Answer:
Checking it out behavior
Explanation:
Checking in and checking out is a famous term in managing the relationship between couples. When couples, one of the partners start to ignore the second partner, it creates a problem between couples.
One partner starts to feel insecure and worry about it, although one partner did not recall it loudest. Many of the psychologists said that people check-in and check out for several reasons. By this process they check whether they are in a solid relationship or not then they can utilize their energy in other things. Both will put effort into the relationship.
Thus here Randy and Julie both couples are in the state of check-in and check the position where they built their relationship strong.
Explain the differences between descriptive, exploratory, explanatory, and evaluation research. Provide an example of each.
Answer:
Exploratory research is defined as the initial research into a hypothetical or theoretical idea. This is where a researcher has an idea or has observed something and seeks to understand more about it. An exploratory research project is an attempt to lay the groundwork that will lead to future studies or to determine if what is being observed might be explained by a currently existing theory. Most often, exploratory research lays the initial groundwork for future research. For example: Consider a scenario where a juice bar owner feels that increasing the variety of juices will enable increase in customers, however he is not sure and needs more information. The owner intends to carry out an exploratory research to find out and hence decides to do an exploratory research to find out if expanding their juices selection will enable him to get more customers of if there is a better idea.
Descriptive research is defined as attempts to explore and explain while providing additional information about a topic. This is where research is trying to describe what is happening in more detail, filling in the missing parts and expanding our understanding. This is also where as much information is collected as possible instead of making guesses or elaborate models to predict the future - the 'what' and 'how,' rather than the 'why.' For example, an apparel brand that wants to understand the fashion purchasing trends among New York buyers will conduct a demographic survey of this region, gather population data and then conduct descriptive research on this demographic segment.
Explanatory Research is the conducted for a problem which was not well researched before, demnds priorities, generates operational definitions and provides a better-researched model. It is actually a type of research design which focuses on explaining the aspects of your study in a detailed manner.
Evaluation research, also known as program evaluation, refers to research purpose instead of a specific method. Evaluation research is the systematic assessment of the worth or merit of time, money, effort and resources spent in order to achieve a goal.
Answer:
Types of research: Exploratory, Descriptive, Explanatory, Correlational. They are the investigations that try to give us a general vision, of approximate type, with respect to a certain reality.
in a high-context culture, "who says it," "how it is said," and "when it is said" is very important. Which country is a high-context culture with regard to communication practices? Multiple Choice Switzerland Saudi Arabia France The United States Germany
Answer:
Saudi Arabia
Explanation:
High-context cultures communicate implicitly and heavily rely on context. Countries that practice this type of communication culture value interpersonal relationships, are collectivist with members that value close and stable relationships. Countries such as Japan, Latin American and Arabic countries have been identified to practice high-context culture. When communicating, people for high-context cultures avoid eye contact of shoulder shrugging, as most information are carried within physical features and acts.
Jacob is on the wrestling team for his high school. After winning a match, Jacob always helps his opponent up from the floor and puts his arm around his opponent's shoulder, so that even his losing opponents like him. This behavior demonstrates how/
Answer: Positive
Complete Question: Jacob is on the wrestling team for his high school. After winning a match, Jacob always helps his opponent up from the floor and puts his arm around his opponent's shoulder, so that even his losing opponents like him. This behavior demonstrates how Positive behavior fosters liking.
Explanation: One of the factors responsible for interpersonal attraction is a positive belief about someone. Positive behavior such as smiling, being helpful, and Jacob’s habit of helping his opponent up from the floor creates a positive feeling in people towards him and help create attraction.
Another factor which helps build interpersonal attraction towards someone is the belief that the person is approachable.
As part of his overall vocational assessment, Oleg took a test that measured his level of knowledge, skills, and accomplishments in particular areas such as mathematics and writing ability. Oleg took a(n) _____ test.
Answer:
The answer is an achievement test.
Explanation:
An achievement test consists of a test related to developed skills. A standardized test is considered the most common type concerning an achievement test. A standardized test was developed to measure the different skills as well as the knowledge that was acquired in a given grade level. This is usually utilized through planned instruction.
There are achievement test scores that are usually utilized in educational systems to establish the level of instruction for which a specific student is ready.
The framers were practical politicians. They knew that to prevent tyranny in their young country, they would have to craft a Constitution that "checks power with power." What does this concept mean?
Answer: Power would need to be distributed to several branches of the government so that the power of one branch could be checked by the other branches.
___________ refers to the contradictions individuals might perceive between their attitudes and their behavior.
Answer:
Cognitive dissonance
Explanation:
Cognitive dissonance includes the dissonance in belief, thought and attitude of a person. This process develops discomfort related to belief, attitude, and behavior. An alteration in the belief thought and attitude of a person leads to a comfort zone.
For instance when a person is smoking (behavior) but he knows that smoking is injurious to health ( cognition) is called cognitive dissonance. Fe-stinger has developed a cognitive dissonance process.
Final answer:
Cognitive dissonance is the psychological discomfort that occurs when there's a conflict between a person's behaviors, attitudes, or beliefs, leading to a contradiction with their positive self-perception.
Explanation:
The contradictions individuals might perceive between their attitudes and their behavior is referred to as cognitive dissonance. This psychological discomfort arises when there's a conflict between a person's behaviors, attitudes, or beliefs that is counter to their positive self-perception. For instance, if someone believes that being healthy is important but continues to smoke, they experience dissonance because their actions are not aligned with their beliefs.
Leon Festinger's theory of cognitive dissonance explains that we seek consistency among our beliefs, attitudes, and behaviors. When this consistency is disrupted, and we engage in behavior that is contrary to our beliefs or attitudes, such as being rude when we believe we should be polite, this creates a discomfort that we are motivated to resolve. We can alleviate this discomfort by changing our behavior to be more in line with our beliefs, by adjusting our beliefs to better fit our behavior, or by adopting new thoughts that make the inconsistency less significant.
You are talking with the president of your company about a possible merger. After she finishes speaking, you respond, "If I understand you correctly, your recommendation is that we go through with the merger." You are providing what type of feedback?
Answer:
Descriptive
Explanation:
Descriptive feedback is detailed information that makes the learner understand what they want to do to improve their performance. This feedback can be in written or verbal form and will inspire all students to feel that they can enhance their work based on their previous performances. The student clearly benefits when the feedbacks are direct and not based on competitiveness.
Final answer:
The colleague's statement is an example of formative feedback, which occurs during the communication process, allowing the speaker to assess the clarity and reception of the message.
Explanation:
When the president of a company finishes speaking about a merger and a colleague responds with, "If I understand you correctly, your recommendation is that we go through with the merger," this is an example of feedback. Specifically, this type of feedback can be identified as formative feedback. It happens during the ongoing exchange between the speaker and the listener. The purpose of formative feedback is for the listener to signal their involvement and understanding, or lack thereof, and it allows the speaker to gauge whether the message is clear and if it's being accepted. In contrast, summative feedback is provided at the end of a communication, representing the listener's overall reaction to the message or the speaker.
Government corruption Group of answer choices1. impedes the coordinating power of markets and discourages investment.2. impedes the coordinating power of markets but does not discourage investment.3. does not impede the coordinating power of markets, but does discourage investment.4. can neither impede the coordinating power of markets nor discourage investment.
Answer:Impedes the coordinating powers of market and discourage investment.(1)
Explanation:Corruption usually affe t market forces.Market forces are international transaction,law of supply and demand, government fiscal and money policies.A corrupt goveenment usually makes policies for their selfish interest,these selfish policies disrupts and destabilize the market forces which invarably makes the economy unstable.No investor would want to invest in an unstable economy
Which of the following is an advantage of product departmentalization? a. It makes cross-department coordination less problematic. b. It results in slower decision making by managers and workers. c. It allows managers and workers to specialize in one area of expertise. d. It reduces costs by reducing duplication.
Answer: c. It allows managers and workers to specialize in one area of expertise.
Explanation: Product departmentalization is when all activities and workers involved in making a product are grouped into one department such that they are overseen by one manager. The advantages include specialization by managers and workers as they focus on just one product. This enables them to have an in-depth knowledge of the product.
One of the disadvantages of Product departmentalization is duplication, which in turn increases cost.
An advantage of product departmentalization is that C. it allows managers and workers to specialize in one area of expertise, leading to increased productivity and higher quality output.
Explanation:An advantage of product departmentalization is that it allows managers and workers to specialize in one area of expertise. Specialization can lead to increased productivity and higher-quality output. When workers focus on a specific set of tasks, they often become more efficient and are able to suggest innovative ways to improve their work.
For example, in an enterprise majorly focussed towards the production of the goods, the assembly line laborers who specialize in building cars, stylists who specialize in cutting hair, and doctors who specialize in heart surgery are able to produce faster and better results due to their specialized knowledge and skills.
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What is the requirement for an applicant who desires to begin the process to become a U.S. missionary?
Answer:
For someone to begin a process of becoming a U.S missionary that person must be at least eighteen years old and wants to serve in U.S. Missions full time.
Explanation:
A missionary associate can also receives on-the-job training and works under the supervision of a nationally appointed U.S. missionary or other ministry leader in a variety of roles.
Identify the example of social capital.
An academic expert of social interactions has written a new book concerning his research on body language.
An artist who vacations in a Colorado town has a few very close friends among the locals.
A college graduate knows a lot about interesting places to see in Los Angeles.
A wealthy Tampa sports fan watches every game in his private box.
Answer: An artist who vacations in Colorado Town has a very few close friends among the locals.
Explanation: Social capital is used to explain the concept of social networking or relationship between individuals which are beneficial. Social capital can be defined as a beneficial or effective impact of social groups or relation achieved through interpersonal relationship, shared vision, goal, aim, objective and norm. It can also been viewed as the beneficial outcome achieved from social networking and interaction. Products or impacts of social interaction may include trust among employees, innovation, sharing of useful information, contribution to organizational growth.
In the scenario above, the relationship between the artist on vacation and locals in Colorado Town might reap benefits such as information sharing and dispatch, Notification on future opportunities and so on.
Social capital is reflected in the artist scenario. It means B. networking relations that help society function. Close ties in a town offer the artist a useful social network.
Explanation:The example of social capital in the scenarios provided is the artist who vacations in a Colorado town and has a few very close friends among the locals. Social capital is the networks of relationships among people who live and work in a particular society, enabling that society to function effectively.
It includes things like friendship, kinship, trust, and the ability to mobilize these connections to get things done. So, having close friends in a Colorado town provides the artist with a social network that may be used for different purposes, both personally and professionally.
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3. According to the American College of Sports Medicine and the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, people should participate in at least ____________________.
Answer:
30 minutes of moderate physical activity, at least 5 days a week.
Explanation:
Physical activity is defined as any bodily movement produced by the contraction of skeletal muscles that results in a substantial increase in caloric requirements over resting energy expenditure. Advantages of physical activity include: increased lung capacity, stronger muscles, heart health, decreased stress levels and anxiety and depression, more flexibility, greater range of movement and ultimate increased longevity.
The CDC and ACSM recommend at least 150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity weekly, muscle strengthening twice a week, and flexibility exercises two to three times weekly for adults.
According to the American College of Sports Medicine (ACSM) and the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), people should participate in at least 150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic physical activity or 75 minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic physical activity each week. For muscle strengthening, the recommendation includes activities targeting major muscle groups at least two or three times weekly.
In addition, for enhanced flexibility and range of motion, flexibility exercises are suggested two to three times a week. Substantial health benefits are gained at 150 minutes of moderate intensity, with additional benefits occurring with 300 minutes or more. Interestingly, despite guidelines, only about half of Americans adhere to the recommended amounts of exercise, with many abandoning their routines within six months.
Students in a psychology experiment were exposed to three notes of music for a very short period of time and then asked to recall them. If the instructions to recall the notes came immediately, the students usually succeeded. If the instructions came more than three seconds after the notes were played, the students were much less successful. The MOST plausible explanation for this phenomenon is that, in the latter case, _____________ .
Answer:
the echo faded before being stored in short-term memory
Explanation:
The short-term memory is one of the major parts in the "information processing model of memory" and is considered as one of the types of the memory through which a piece of information through in an individual's mind.
At first, a piece of particular information comes from external stimuli and being processed in the sensory memory and after that, it travels to the short-term memory and at the end entered in the long-term memory.
In short-term memory, a piece of information lasts for about a few seconds after that it gets vanished if kept un-rehearsed.
In reference to the question, the given statement represents the delayed recall due to which the memory fades away before getting stored in the short-term memory.
Seth is a licensee working for a buyer, Britney. Britney wants to make sure the seller accepts her offer on a charming Cape Cod, so she tells Seth she wants to make a full-price, non-contingent offer right away. How should Seth respond?
Answer:
Advice her
Explanation:
Seth is a licensed buyer and for you to be a licensed buyer,you must have at least the neccessaru experience and skills needed to participate as a buyer.
Britney want to make a full offer because she was the seller to accept her offer, Seth should advice on this, she should start at full offer, it is better she starts lower than offer so that she can get the best price of the offer, that should be the response of seth.
Final answer:
Seth, as a licensee, should inform Britney of the risks of making a non-contingent offer and ensure she understands the implications. He should also discuss alternatives such as strategic negotiations based on market analysis to help her make a well-informed decision.
Explanation:
As a licensee working for a buyer, it is Seth's responsibility to safeguard Britney's interests in purchasing a house. If Britney intends to make a full-price, non-contingent offer on a Cape Cod property, Seth should advise her of the implications of a non-contingent offer, such as the risk involved if any issues arise that she would usually be protected against by contingencies. He should ensure she understands that a non-contingent offer means she is foregoing usual safeguards such as inspections, financing, and appraisal contingencies that can protect her investment. Seth's role is to ensure that Britney is making an informed decision and that it aligns with her best interests and willingness to accept potential risks.
While a full-price offer may incentivize the seller to accept, it's also critical for a licensee like Seth to discuss with Britney how strategic negotiations or further validation of the property's value might result in better terms or a price better aligned with the market. He should analyze comparable sales and the property's condition to ensure the offer is competitive without overpaying. Ultimately, Seth's guidance should enable Britney to make a well-thought-out offer that serves her goals while maintaining due diligence.
The Second Amendment is primarily concerned with ______. a. eminent domain b. jury trials in civil cases c. the right to bear arms d. freedom of the press
Answer:
C. The right to bear arms against your government
Final answer:
The Second Amendment is concerned with the right to bear arms, while the Third Amendment is about home privacy, and the Fourth Amendment regulates searches and seizures.
Explanation:
The Second Amendment is primarily concerned with c. the right to bear arms. This amendment is a pivotal part of the United States Bill of Rights and ensures that individuals have the legal means to possess firearms. The Supreme Court has affirmed this interpretation, allowing people to keep a usable handgun at home for self-defense, though with certain restrictions.
The Third Amendment, in comparison, can be thought of as c. forming part of a broader conception of privacy in the home that is also protected by the Second and Fourth Amendments. This amendment arose from the colonial resentment of British troops being quartered in private homes.
The Fourth Amendment dictates that searches and seizures require a warrant, barring a few exceptions such as when there is an immediate risk that evidence will be destroyed. This requirement is d. does not apply when there is a serious risk that evidence will be destroyed before a warrant can be issued.