Answer: Sympathetic Nervous System.
Explanation:
The sympathetic nervous system is part of the autonomic nervous system. The sympathetic nervous system activates what is often termed the fight or flight response. The sympathetic nervous system directs the body's rapid involuntary response to dangerous or stressful situations. A flash flood of hormones boosts the body's alertness and heart rate, sending extra blood to the muscles. Breathing quickens, delivering fresh oxygen to the brain, and an infusion of glucose is shot into the bloodstream for a quick energy boost. The sympathetic nervous system allows animals to make quick internal adjustments and react without having to think about it.
Final answer:
David's autonomic nervous system is activated, triggering the fight-or-flight response, which is controlled by the sympathetic nervous system and responsible for the physiological changes he experiences.
Explanation:
Clearly, David's autonomic nervous system has been activated. In situations of stress or perceived danger, the body responds through the fight-or-flight response, enabling an individual to prepare to either defend themselves or escape the threat.
The sympathetic nervous system, a part of the autonomic nervous system, is responsible for these physiological reactions, such as increased heart rate, dilated pupils, heavy breathing, and perspiration.
This activation prepares the muscles for quick action, enhances sensory perceptions, and accelerates the heart rate to pump blood efficiently to vital organs and muscles, providing the energy and oxygen required for a rapid response.
The food web illustrated above shows plants and animals, but does not indicate bacteria. If bacteria were truly missing from this food web, what is the most likely effect on the community?
Answer: Bacterias are Decomposer and they complete the food web they turn inorganic waste like decay plant and animals into organic material. They help in returning nutrient to the soil for use by autotrophs, and which would now lead to a new food wen.
Explanation:
A client with chronic open-angle glaucoma is now presenting with eye pain and intraocular pressure of 50 mm Hg. An immediate iridotomy is scheduled. Which of the following describes the desired effects of this procedure?
asked Oct 13, 2016 in Nursing by Federico
A) Reverse optic nerve damage
B) Restore vision
C) Improve outflow drainage
D) To relieve pain
Answer:
The correct answer is - option C.
Explanation:
Iridotomy is a procedure which is used to treat condition like narrow angle glaucoma and chronic open angle glaucoma, angle closure glaucoma and other chronic glaucoma conditions. In many cases iridotomy is needed to be performed immediately.
Iridotomy procedure in this case is helpful as it is improve the outflow of the drainage which is causing the intraocular pressure which is 50 mm in this case and also will help in reducing the pain.
Thus, the correct answer is - option C.
During pregnancy a woman's blood volume increases to accommodate the growing fetus to the point that vital signs may remain within normal range without showing signs of shock until the woman has lost what percentage of her blood volume?
Answer:
The correct answer is - 40%.
Explanation:
The condition of the shock in an individual occur if she experienced the blood loss 40 % or more of her total blood pressure during pregnancy as she require enough amount of blood for the essential body organs to function.
As the fetus grow the women's blood volume is also increases to accommodate accordingly. This condition leads to blood loss of the mother. The critical limit is 40% of total blood.
Thus, the correct answer is - 40%
Imagine a hypothetical habitat where there are many simple and complex multicellular organisms of roughly the same size. A new predator is introduced into the habitat that feeds by taking bites of the organisms, rather than consuming them entirely. Given this, which of the statements is most likely?
Answer:
Complex multicellular organisms will suffer more, because vital differentiated cells that the rest of the organism requires will be lost.
Explanation:
As the new producer will take bites of organisms, the complex organisms will most likely be harmed more from such a mode of nutrition. This is because each part of a complex organism will be made up of vital differentiated cells which will be specialized to perform its function. Loss of such part will lead to certain permanent kind of disabilities in the complex organism.
Based on radiometric dating, the oldest rocks scientists have found on Earth are 4.6 billion years old, but not ALL rocks are that old. Why might some rocks be 4.6 billion years old, and other rocks are only 2 billion years old, while yet others are only a few thousands years old?
Answer:
The answer to your question is below
Explanation:
Because similar to living things, some rocks are formed and it takes a long period to degrade them. During this period new rocks are born, some of these rocks can react with some compounds of the environment and can form new rocks or can be degraded.
What I try to say is that rock formation takes a lot of time and while some rocks disappear new rocks are created.
Final answer:
Radiometric dating is used to determine the age of rocks on Earth. The age of a rock is determined by the isotopes present in the rock and their decay rate. Through this method, scientists have found that the oldest rocks on Earth are around 4.6 billion years old, but not all rocks are that old.
Explanation:
Radiometric dating is used to determine the age of rocks on Earth. Through this method, scientists have found that the oldest rocks on Earth are around 4.6 billion years old. However, not all rocks are that old. Some rocks may only be 2 billion years old, while others may be only a few thousand years old.
The reason for this variation in rock ages is due to the process of rock formation and geological events that have occurred over time. Rocks are formed through different processes such as volcanic activity, metamorphism, and sedimentation. The age of a rock is determined by the isotopes present in the rock and their decay rate.
For example, radioactive isotopes such as uranium-238 decay at a predictable rate to form daughter isotopes. By measuring the ratio of parent and daughter isotopes in a rock, scientists can calculate its age. The older rocks would have higher ratios of daughter isotopes, indicating a longer period of decay.
Which one of the following is not associated with nitrate exposure in humans?
a. goiter.
b. blue baby syndrome.
c. risk of developing insulin-dependent diabetes.
d. brittle bones.
Answer:
The correct answer is d. brittle bones.
Explanation:
Brittle bone disease is a genetic disorder that causes the bone to become fragile that easily breaks. It is also known as osteogenesis imperfecta which means imperfect bones.
In this disease, a gene that makes type 1 collagen becomes defected. Type 1 collagen is an important protein that is required to make bones. This defective gene mainly comes from parents. So brittle bone disease is not associated with nitrate exposure in humans while goiter, blue baby syndrome, and risk of developing insulin-dependent diabetes are associated.
Final answer:
Brittle bones are not associated with nitrate exposure in humans. Nitrate exposure has been connected with health concerns such as blue baby syndrome and potentially goiter and insulin-dependent diabetes, but not directly with brittle bones.
Explanation:
The answer to which of the following is not associated with nitrate exposure in humans is d. brittle bones. While exposure to nitrates has been linked to a number of health concerns, brittle bones is not commonly associated with nitrate exposure. Exposure to high levels of nitrates is more notably connected with blue baby syndrome (where it interferes with oxygen delivery in infants' bloodstream), and there has been some research suggesting a possible link between nitrates and the development of certain health issues like goiter and insulin-dependent diabetes, although some of these links are subject to ongoing research and debate.
Other conditions associated with environmental factors during prenatal development include lead poisoning, exposure to mercury, and iodine deficiency, which can cause conditions like cretinism and cognitive impairments. In infants, blue baby syndrome is a serious health concern that has been linked to nitrate exposure from drinking water containing nitrate levels exceed the maximum contaminant level (MCL).
A/An ________ is a location column that receives information about all possible orientations within a given area of the retina.
Answer:
hypercolumn
Explanation:
The hypercoloumn consists of a group of neurons in the cortex of the brain that receives information of an object from the left and the right eye and interprets the orientation of such objects. The hypercolumn which are located across the surface of the primary visual cortex allows us to see objects or pictures as one as presented in a given area of the retina. The hypercolumn can also be referred to as cortical column.
Which characteristic feature of a drug may increase the likelihood of drug transfer through breast milk?
Answer:
Size of the drug molecule
Maternal plasma concentration
Degree of ionisation
Explanation:
Size of the drug molecule
Most drug molecules, including alcohol, nicotine and caffeine, are small enough to enter milk. Exceptions are drugs with high molecular weights such as heparins and insulin.
Maternal plasma concentration
Passive diffusion is the primary pathway by which drugs enter milk. There is a good concordance between the time-course of maternal plasma-drug concentration and milk-drug concentration. Maternal plasma concentration is also affected by the drug’s distribution into different tissues. A high volume of distribution (as for sertraline) will contribute to a lower maternal plasma concentration and a subsequent lower concentration in milk.
Degree of ionisation
Drugs cross membranes in an un-ionised form. Milk is generally slightly more acidic (pH 7.2) than the mother’s plasma (pH 7.4) so it attracts weak organic bases such as oxycodone and codeine.7 Such drugs become ionised and ‘trapped’ in the milk. Conversely, weak organic acids such as penicillin tend to be ionised and held in maternal plasma.
Sexual selection favors individuals with traits that increase their ability to obtain mates, such as mating calls in crickets. Using this example, propose a scenario where sexual selection could contribute to divergence in sympatric speciation.male(s) / female(s) / cool forest floor / warm forest canopyVariation in ________ calls could occur, such as a lower-pitched call at the _______ and a higher-pitched call in the _______. _______ in the _______ could start to prefer _______ with lower-pitched calls, and ________ in the _________ could start to prefer _________ with higher-pitched calls, creating genetic isolation. Over time, genetic divergence could occur between the two populations.
Answer:
variation in male calls could occur, such as a lower-pitched call at the cool forest floor and a higher-pitched call in the warm forest canopy. Females in the forest floor could start to prefer males with lower-pitched calls, and females in the canopy could start to prefer males with higher-pitched calls, creating genetic isolation. Over time, genetic divergence could occur between the two populations.
Explanation:
To complte this exercise, you should fill in the blanks with the correct phrase taken from the options;
male(s) / female(s) / cool forest floor / warm forest canopy
Final answer:
Variation in mating calls related to different ecological niches like the forest floor and canopy could lead to female preference for specific calls, resulting in genetic isolation and sympatric speciation.
Explanation:
Sexual selection favors characteristics that improve an organism's chances of mating and producing offspring. It can lead to divergence in sympatric speciation, even in cases where different populations of the same species share the same geographic area but occupy different ecological niches, such as the cool forest floor and the warm forest canopy. Here is a proposed scenario:
Variations in mating calls could occur, such as a lower-pitched call on the cool forest floor and a higher-pitched call on the warm forest canopy. Females on the cool floor could start to prefer males with lower-pitched calls, and females in the canopy could start to prefer males with higher-pitched calls, creating genetic isolation. Over time, genetic divergence could occur between the two populations, leading to reproductive isolation and potentially the formation of new species.
As a result of stress, the anterior pituitary releases ________, which stimulates release of hormones from the adrenal cortex that retain sodium and water, increase blood sugar, and begin breaking down fats.A) thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)B) growth hormoneC) ADH D) ACTH
Answer:
ACTH
Explanation:
Corticotrophs from anterior pituitary gland secretes adrenocorticotropic hormone under stress conditions. ACTH stimulates the cortex of the adrenal gland to secrete glucocorticoids. Cortisol is the main glucocorticoid secreted by the adrenal cortex. This hormone triggers the break down of fats and proteins as well as stimulate gluconeogenesis. All these physiological responses prepare the body to combat stress or emergency conditions.
Answer: Option D) ACTH is the he correct answer.
Explanation: Corticotropin-releasing hormone and vasopressin are responsible for the release of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), which in result have effect on the release of hormone from adrenal cortex.
Cortisol is the hormone produce in response of ACTH effect on adrenal cortex. In the condition of stress; metabolic effects, nervous system effects are produced.
Gjabolla has been suffering from a terrible fear of lightning for some time now. Whenever there are storms in the weather forecast, she gets very upset and plans on spending the duration of that time in her basement. She has even called in sick to work to avoid going out during a bad thunderstorm. How long would these symptoms have to persist before a diagnosis of a specific phobia could be made?
Answer:
6 months
Explanation:
A phobia can be described as a condition in which a person faces severe anxiety for a certain event or object that he observes. The person might behave irrationally when he/she observes the fearful event or object. Although a person completely understands that he is behaving irrationally after encountering the problematic situation, however he cannot control himself at the time when he experiences the situation. Psychologists diagnose phobia when a person continuously fears a situation for more a period of six or more months.
During the last decade, the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service has worked to reestablish the critically endangered California condor in its last stronghold, the mountains of southern California. Recently, the service has also tried to establish a second population in the Grand Canyon region of Arizona. Why would the Fish and Wildlife Service consider it a high priority to establish two populations that are geographically distant from each other
• Multiple condor populations reduce inbreeding.
• Multiple condor populations provide more opportunities for people to view the endangered species, which may cause more people to be concerned with its fate.
• Multiple condor populations reduce genetic drift within each population.
• Multiple condor populations reduce the risk of extinction due to localized catastrophes
Answer:
The correct answer is D. "Multiple condor populations reduce the risk of extinction due to localized catastrophes".
Explanation:
In 1975, The California Condor Recovery Plan was prepared by the California Cóndor Recovery Team integrated by the National Audubon Society, the U.S. California Department of Fish and Game, The Forest Service, the U.S. Bureau of Land Management, and the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service or Usfws.
The objective of this recovery plan was to maintain and keep a population of 50 condors distributed in the same areas as they used to inhabit in 1974, with a rate of 4 birth per year and the less possible mortality rate.
They supposed that if condors were widely geographically distributed, then not all of them would be under the same limiting local pressures, even possible catastrophes. If the annual birth rate was equal or higher than the mortality rate then a little population would be able to survive. Finally, if the species was in extinction danger state and under an extensive managing program, populations could recover their stability.
They were focused on protecting the nesting areas, protecting the feeding areas and preventing mortality.
A 78 year old grandmother presents for eval of weakness in her face. She has a longstanding history of HTN that has been under fair control. On physical exam you note that she has ptosis and miosis of the left eye and left facial anhidrosis. What is your most likely diagnosis?
A) Horner's syndrome
B) Anisocoria
C) Acute angle-closure glaucoma
D) Myasthenia gravis
Answer:
A) Horner's syndrome
Explanation:
Horner's syndrome:
Horner syndrome occurs due to damage of nerve pathway from brain to eye and face.
In this condition particularly damage one side of the face and eye of the patient.
Symptoms:
Its symptoms include:
Miosis (pupil will become small)ptosis (upper eyelid will drooping)anisocoria (pupil size will be physically different between two eyes)anhidrosis (there will be no sweating or little in rare cases)So, The above mentioned condition proves the presence of Horner's syndrome.
what is the substance found in many plants that is not considered a nutrient but has many healthful benefits?
Answer:
The correct answer is phytochemicals.
Explanation:
Phytochemicals refer to the components, which are generated by plants. They are witnessed in vegetables, fruits, beans, grains, and other plants. Some of these phytochemicals are considered to protect cells from destruction, which could result in cancer. The phytochemicals are not considered as nutrients, but possesses many health benefits:
1. It helps in ceasing carcinogens from attacking cells.
2. It helps to prevent the generation of potential cancer-resulting substances.
3. It assists the cells to prevent and eradicate any kind of cancer-like modifications.
Some of the phytochemicals, which are considered as the most beneficial ones are polyphenols in tea, beta-carotene and other carotenoids in vegetables and fruits, and isothiocyanates found in cruciferous vegetables.
Assuming no crossing over between the gene in question and the centromere, during what phase of meiosis do alleles segregate?
Answer:
During Anaphase stage
Explanation:
Meiosis is the type of cell division employed during gamete formation when each resulting gamete (daughter cell) has their chromosomal number reduced by half. Meiosis occurs in a two step division; Meiosis I and II. Meiosis I involves the separation of homologous chromosomes (similar but non-identical chromosomes received from each parent) while Meiosis II involves separation of sister chromatids (replicated chromosomes).
Alleles are present on the chromosomes which segregate or separate during the anaphase stage. Alleles received from each parent are separated in Anaphase I of meiosis I, which the identical replicated alleles are separated in anaphase of meiosis II.
The phase of meiosis in which the alleles segregate is during ANAPHASE I.
Meiosis is a cell division in which a parent cell divides twice and thus generates four germinal cells having half the genetic material.Meiosis can be divided into two division steps: Meiosis I and Meiosis II.Each one of these stages can in run divided into Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase (in Anaphase I stage alleles segregate to opposite poles) and Telophase.In conclusion, the phase of meiosis in which the alleles segregate is during ANAPHASE I.
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A sample of adults with generalized anxiety disorder are participating in a Stroop task in which threat-related words are presented in different colors on a computer screen. As compared with adults without an anxiety disorder, the sample should take __________.
Answer:
The sample will take longer to name the colors of the words
Explanation:
It is normal to feel anxious once in a while. However people with Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) are constantly worried, restless and have trouble concentrating.
The Stroop task is a psychological test where name of a color is written with a different ink. This will cause a delay in response time due to mismatch of stimuli.
Therefore, the sample which consists of adults with GAD will take longer to name the colors of the words.
Sally, age 28, recently married John, age 45. They would like to have a child, but they are concerned that they may be at high risk to have a child with a chromosomal abnormality, like Down’s syndrome, because of John’s age. What is their genetic counselor likely to tell them?
Answer:
The doctor will talk to the couple about having a child at this age. As there is a huge age gap in between these two partners.
The female is of age 28 and the male is of age 45. At such an age there are chances that the child borne can suffer from different genetic disorders but not by down syndrome.
This is so because the Down syndrome occurs when the age of female is more than 30 or 35 years of age.
A genetic counselor would likely tell Sally and John that while John's age may slightly increase their risk of having a child with a chromosomal abnormality, the overall risk remains relatively low. They would also discuss various genetic testing options available to help them make informed decisions.
Explanation:Sally and John's concern about potential chromosomal abnormalities in their child due to John's age can be addressed by their genetic counselor. While maternal age is a well-known factor that can increase the risk of having a child with a chromosomal abnormality, such as Down’s syndrome, the effect of paternal age is not as striking and remains a topic of ongoing research. Some studies suggest that increasing paternal age might be linked to an increased risk of certain rare birth defects or psychiatric conditions, but the overall risk remains relatively low.
Therefore, the genetic counselor is likely to advise them that although John's age might slightly increase the risk of certain conditions, the overall risk remains low, and there are genetic testing options before and during pregnancy to assess the health status of their potential child. Ultimately, the decision on whether or when to have a child may take into account a variety of individual and combined health, lifestyle, and personal factors.
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The energy released is trapped in the form of ATP (Links to an external site.) for use by all the energy-consuming activities of the cell. The process occurs in two phases: glycolysis, the breakdown of glucose to pyruvic acid the complete oxidation of pyruvic acidto carbon dioxide and water. Fermation is the chemical breakdown of a substance by bacteria, yeasts, or other microorganisms, typically involving effervescence and the giving off of heat. the process of fermentation involved in the making of beer, wine, and liquor, in which sugars are converted to ethyl alcohol.
ATP is used and released during the metabolic processes.
Explanation:
In the process of Respiration, a glucose molecule is eventually broken down into carbon dioxide and water. During this process, some ATP is produced directly in the reactions that transform glucose. However, more ATP is produced later in a process called oxidative phosphorylation.
Oxidative phosphorylation takes place by the movement of electrons through the electron transport chain, a series of proteins embedded in the inner membrane of the mitochondrion.
Fermentation process takes place when the availability of oxygen is less. In this process glucose instead of converting into CO2 and water gets converted into lactic acid or any other alcohol.
The central principle of therapeutic massage is that the body's soft tissues will function optimally when the circulatory and lymphatic systems are unimpeded. true or false
Answer: True
Explanation:
The central principle of the therapeutic massage is that body's soft tissues will function more properly if the lymphatic system and the circulatory system of the body will not be hindered.
The better the blood flow the better will be the supply of oxygen to the various parts and organs of the body that helps in better function of body.
The clots or hindrance in these systems can result in pain and numbness in the different parts of the body.
"The statement is true. The central principle of therapeutic massage is indeed based on the belief that the body's soft tissues will function optimally when the circulatory and lymphatic systems are unimpeded.
Therapeutic massage is a form of bodywork that aims to improve the function of the body's soft tissues, which include muscles, tendons, ligaments, and fascia. The goal is to promote relaxation, reduce muscle tension and soreness, improve circulation, and enhance the body's natural healing processes.
The circulatory system is responsible for delivering oxygen and nutrients to tissues and removing waste products. By improving circulation through massage, the body's cells can function more efficiently, which can lead to faster recovery from injuries and better overall health.
The lymphatic system is a crucial part of the immune system and helps to remove toxins and waste from the body. Unlike the circulatory system, the lymphatic system does not have a pump to move lymph fluid; instead, it relies on muscle movement and manual manipulation, such as massage, to facilitate lymph flow.
By applying various techniques, such as effleurage, petrissage, and tapotement, massage therapists can stimulate blood flow and lymphatic drainage, thereby helping to reduce swelling and improve immune function. This unimpeded flow in both systems is believed to contribute to the body's ability to maintain health and recover from injury or illness
Animal tissues _____.
a. are composed of undifferentiated cells
b. are joined with each other by nerve cells
c. do not necessarily have specific functions
d. contain relatively small amounts of fluid
e. are organized into organs
Answer:
e
Explanation:
because it organized According
from tissue to organ from organ to system
Final answer:
Animal tissues are organized into organs, consisting of epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous tissues that carry out specialized functions within the body.
Explanation:
The question asks about the nature of animal tissues. To answer it: animal tissues are organized into organs. This is because the tissues of multicellular, complex animals are four primary types: epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous tissues. These tissues are groups of similar cells carrying out related functions. They combine to form organs, such as the skin or kidney, which have specific, specialized functions within the body. Furthermore, organs are organized into organ systems like the circulatory system, comprising the heart and blood vessels, and the digestive system, which includes the stomach, intestines, liver, and pancreas. These organ systems work together to sustain the organism as an entire living being.
You are handed a model of a protein. It has a three-dimensional shape, and by twisting it, you can see that there is only one polypeptide chain in the model. You can see two alpha helices lined up next to one another in the model. From this evidence, you are looking at what level of protein structure? Tertiary T/F
Final answer:
True. The protein model described with a three-dimensional shape and two alpha helices represents the tertiary structure of a protein, involving complex 3D folding of a single polypeptide chain.
Explanation:
Based on the description provided by the student, the model of the protein with a single polypeptide chain and two alpha helices represents the tertiary structure of a protein. The tertiary structure is known for the large-scale three-dimensional shape formed from the folding and twisting of the polypeptide. Primary structure is defined by the sequence of amino acids. Secondary structure arises from local folding into common patterns such as alpha helices and beta-pleated sheets. Tertiary structure, on the other hand, involves a complex 3D construction due to the interactions between amino acid residues that are distant in the primary sequence, including hydrogen bonds, hydrophobic interactions, and disulfide bridges. A protein's quaternary structure occurs when multiple polypeptide chains, or subunits, come together to form a complete protein complex, which is not the case here as described by the student.
Pls hep me i don't understand!!!!!!
In the image below, does Group A or Group B have a stronger gravitational force between the objects in the group? Give one supporting detail for your answer. Two sets of circles. In Group A, the distance between the two objects is 5 m. In Group B, the distance between the two objects is 10 m.
Answer:
Group A.
Explanation:
The bigger 2 objects are, the more gravitation they exert upon each other. However, since size is unknown, you can assume that group A has stronger gravitation, since 2 equal-size objects put closer together have a stronger pull than 2 objects placed far apart.
Think about the earth orbiting the sun. It's in a good zone of not flying into the sun and also not flying away. If it got substantially closer, it would eventually just run straight into the sun.
When Jackie experienced her fourth miscarriage and was soon after diagnosed with cervical cancer, her doctor asked if she knew anything about her mother's pregnancy with her. The doctor likely suspects that the drug __________ is behind Jackie's problemss
Explanation:
Diethylstilboestrol, commonly known as DES or thalidomide was widely prescribed as an anti-miscarriage drug for 30 years between 1943 and 1973.
The production and sale of this drug was banned due to its carcinogenic side effects. It was also discovered that the effects of this drug can also manifest themselves in people whose mothers were administered with the drug.
If Jackie's mother consumed DES while she was pregnant with Jackie,, It is probable that Jackie's miscarriages and her cancer are an indirect effect of the banned drug.
Jane was involved in an automobile accident in which both her parents were killed. When you ask her about it, she says she has no memory of the accident. What ego defense mechanism is she using?
Answer:
The correct answer is- repression
Explanation:
There are many types of defense mechanism like repression, denial, projection, displacement, regression, etc. Repression is an unconscious defense mechanism that is ego employed to keep out the bad and threatening thought to come in mind.
So here when Jane is asked about the accident she says that she is not having any memory about the accident which shows that she is using repression as an ego defense mechanism to avoid that disturbing thought of accident to become conscious.
There is a mutation in the operator of the lac operon in a cell such that the lac repressor always stays bound to the operator. If lactose is added to the cell, what will happen?
Answer:
Yes, if there is a mutation in the operator of the lac operon in a cell such that the lac repressor always stays bound to the operator. If lactose is added to the cell, the lac repressor loses its ability to bind DNA. It clear off the operator, clearing the way for RNA polymerase to transcribe the operon.
If you cross an albino(g) female whose father was grey(G), with a grey male whose mother was albino(g), what are the possible genotypes are there among the offspring?
Answer:
2 possible genotypes, Gg and gg are among the offspring.
Explanation:
In monohybrid, making cross an albino female (g), whose father was gray (G), with a gray male, whose mother was albino
G g
g Gg gg
g Gg gg
Genotypes: ½ Gg and ½ gg
Phenotypes: ½ Gray and ½ albino
Both offspring will have a 50 percent chance of heterozygous and homozygous.
The possible genotypes of offspring from a cross between an albino female (gg) and a grey male (Gg) are Gg (grey) and gg (albino), with a phenotypic ratio of 1 grey:1 albino.
Possible Genotypes of Offspring from Crosses Involving Albinism
When determining the possible genotypes of offspring with one albino parent and one grey parent, we need to consider the pattern of inheritance for the albinism trait, which is typically recessive. Assuming that 'G' represents the dominant grey allele and 'g' represents the recessive albino allele, and knowing the parental genotypes, we can set up a Punnett square to predict the possible genotypes of the offspring.
The female albino (gg) must pass on a 'g' allele to all offspring. The grey male, whose mother was albino, must be heterozygous (Gg) as he exhibits the grey phenotype but carries the recessive albino allele. When we cross a gg female with a Gg male, the possible genotypes of their offspring are Gg (grey) and gg (albino). Thus, there is a 50% chance for an offspring to be grey and a 50% chance for an offspring to be albino. There is no chance for offspring to be GG as the grey female does not have a G allele to contribute.
The phenotypic ratio of the offspring from this cross would be 1 grey:1 albino, assuming no other genetic interactions affect the expression of the grey and albino phenotypes.
The B vitamins act as parts of: a. anticoagulants b. coenzymes c. antibodies d. the bone matrix e. intrinsic factors
B vitamins primarily serve as coenzymes, assisting in various biochemical reactions within our body. They do not serve directly as anticoagulants, antibodies, elements of the bone matrix, or intrinsic factors.
Explanation:The B vitamins, which include vitamins B1, B2, B3, B5, B6, B7, B9 and B12, primarily serve as coenzymes. This means that they act as helpers in various biochemical reactions inside our body, facilitating the process of converting food into energy. Hence, from the options provided, B vitamins act as parts of coenzymes. They don't directly serve as anticoagulants, antibodies, parts of the bone matrix, or intrinsic factors.
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B vitamins function as part of coenzymes, which are substances needed for many biochemical reactions, including energy metabolism and the synthesis of new cells. They are not part of anticoagulants, antibodies, the bone matrix, or intrinsic factors.
Explanation:The B vitamins serve as parts of coenzymes. Coenzymes are substances, including vitamins like B and folate, which are instrumental in various biochemical reactions in the body. Some, such as the B vitamins, play a large role in energy metabolism and the synthesis of new cells, including erythrocytes (red blood cells).
For example, the trace mineral zinc functions as a coenzyme that facilitates the synthesis of the heme portion of hemoglobin, which is needed to transport oxygen in the blood. Similarly, folate and vitamin B12 act as coenzymes for DNA synthesis, thus, they are vital for cell reproduction.
Vitamins are necessary parts of many biochemical reactions in our bodies. They are involved in many processes including mineral and bone metabolism, and cell and tissue growth. Therefore, B vitamins do not serve as anticoagulants, antibodies, bone matrix, or intrinsic factors but are part of the coenzymes which facilitate numerous essential biochemical reactions.
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There are a number of lipids that are found in foods and contribute to various functions in the body. Triglycerides are the most common lipid found in food and in the body; they consist of a ____________ backbone attached to three fatty acids.
Fatty acids are classified based on the degree to which the carbon chain is saturated with ________
A fatty acid is ____________ if it contains no carbon-carbon double bonds, ____________ if it contains
two or more carbon-carbon double bonds, and ____________ if it has only one carbon-carbon double bond.
The unsaturated fatty acids can exist in one of two structural forms: the ____________ form occurs when hydrogens on both carbons forming the double bond lie on opposite sides of that bond.
When hydrogens on an unsaturated fatty acid lie on the same side of the carbon-carbon double bond, a ____________ formation exists.
Answer:
There are a number of lipids that are found in foods and contribute to various functions in the body. Triglycerides are the most common lipid found in food and in the body; they consist of a Glycerol backbone attached to three fatty acids.
Fatty acids are classified based on the degree to which the carbon chain is saturated with Hydrogen
A fatty acid is saturated if it contains no carbon-carbon double bonds, polyunsaturated if it contains two or more carbon-carbon double bonds, and monounsaturated if it has only one carbon-carbon double bond.
The unsaturated fatty acids can exist in one of two structural forms: the trans form occurs when hydrogens on both carbons forming the double bond lie on opposite sides of that bond.
When hydrogens on an unsaturated fatty acid lie on the same side of the carbon-carbon double bond, a cis formation exists.
Most water-soluble hormones exert their effects through the second messenger cyclic AMP (cAMP). This activity will test your understanding of the events that occur during cAMP signaling. Drag the events of cAMP signaling in the correct sequence from left to right.
Answer:
cAMP dependent pathway is important for processing of life.
Explanation:
cAMP pathway is also called as adenynyl cyclase pathway.
This mechanism requires different steps like-
G protein coupled receptor is a integral protein that is activated by different external stimuli which binds with the specific ligand.Extracellular ligand causes activation of GPCR which in turn is responsible for conformational change in the receptor and allows it to bind with the intracellular heterotrimeric G protein complex.The Gα stimulate G protein complex to exchange GDP for GTP and then the complex is released.Activated Gα binds with adenylate cyclase and catalyzes ATP to form cyclic AMP.Activation of cAMP leads to the activation of nucleotide gated ion channel, and PKa(Protein kinase A) which is also called as cAMP dependent enzyme.Once, PKA is activated,it causes phospholylation of other proteins like AMPA receptor,transcription factors which regulate gene expression, and convert glycogen into glucose.An EMT is confronted by an armed gunman who is threatening to kill the EMT and his partner. An elevation in the EMT's heart rate and blood occurs in which stage of the body's response to stress?
Answer:
The correct answer is alarm reaction stage.
Explanation:
The alarm reaction stage signifies towards the beginning of the symptoms, which the body encounters at the time of stress. As one knows about the fight or flight response, which is a physiological reaction towards stress. This reaction enables one to either flee or protect oneself in dangerous conditions.
In the condition, the heart rate enhances, the adrenal gland discharges a stress hormone known as cortisol, and one gets a boost of adrenaline that enhances energy. This fight-or-flight response takes place in the alarm reaction stage.
Final answer:
An increase in heart rate and blood pressure during a stressful encounter like facing an armed gunman represents the alarm reaction stage of the general adaptation syndrome or fight-or-flight response, mediated by epinephrine and norepinephrine.
Explanation:
An elevation in the EMT's heart rate and blood pressure occurs in the alarm reaction stage of the body's response to stress, also known as the fight-or-flight response. This response is mediated by the hormones epinephrine and norepinephrine from the adrenal medulla via the Sympatho-Adreno-Medullary (SAM) pathway. The function of these hormones is to prepare the body for extreme physical exertion in potentially life-threatening situations. Once the stress is relieved, the body quickly returns to normal.