Answer:
C. gizzrd
Explanation:
Final answer:
The correct answer is the gizzard (option c), which is a specialized stomach that grinds food in animals, such as birds, that do not have teeth for chewing.
Explanation:
The specialization of the stomach that aids in grinding for animals that lack teeth is the gizzard. Animals such as birds possess a gizzard that allows them to grind their food, as they do not have teeth to masticate. In the avian digestive system, food passes from the esophagus to a pouch called a crop, which stores food, then to the proventriculus where it is initially processed with digestive juices. The partially digested food next enters the gizzard, where it is ground into smaller pieces. Birds may also swallow stones or grit, which are stored in the gizzard to aid in the grinding process.
The shells of a certain species of marine snail are highly variable, with some snail shells being solid colors and others being striped. Which condition of natural selection is this most related to?
The shells of a certain species of marine snail are highly variable, with some snail shells being solid colors and others being striped. Which condition of natural selection is this most related to?
a) artificial variation
b) environmental variation
c) genetic variation
d) no variation
Answer:
c) genetic variation
Explanation:
The process of natural selection can operate on a population only when the population has genetic variations. This means that different variants of a genetic trait must be present in the population. In the species of marine snails, some snails have solid colored shells while the others have striped shells. Here, the snail population has genetic variations with respect to their shells. The natural selection would favor the shells which impart survival fitness to snails under the prevailing conditions.
most common reason for decompensation of previously well-compensated heart failure during dental treatment?
Answer:
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
The question is incomplete, here is the full question;
Which of the following is the most common reason for decompensation of previously well-compensated heart failure during dental treatment?
A. Tachycardia due to anxiety
B. Failure to take medications as prescribed
C. Orthopnea due to chair position
D. Lack of sufficient oxygen saturation due to use of the rubber dam
And the most common reason out of the given options for decompensation is failure to take medications as prescribed which is a crucial step in the treatment process.
I hope this answer helps.
Answer:
Failure to take the prescribed medication.
Explanation:
Decompensation. Your doctor may describe heart failure based on the strength of your heart and the response of your body. Compensated heart failure means that your heart works reasonably well, or even does not detect a problem, or symptoms are easy to treat.
Blood flow is ________ proportional to the difference in blood pressure. Blood flow is ________ proportional to the total peripheral resistance.
Answer:
Blood flow is directly proportional to the difference in blood pressure. Blood flow is inversely proportional to the total peripheral resistance.
Explanation:
Blood flow is determined by the pressure difference and the resistance of the vessel. Pressure difference drives the flow of blood while resistance impedes the flow. Ohm’s law shows the relationship between blood flow, peripheral resistance and pressure difference.
(Q=∆P/R)
Flow= Q
Pressure difference = ∆P
Resistance = R
This equation shows a direct proportion between the flow of blood and pressure difference. The relationship between blood flow and resistance is shown as an inverse proportion by the equation. A change in resistance is the the mechanism that changes direction of blood flow in vessels.
The flow of the blood should be directly proportional to the blood pressure difference. The flow of blood should be inversely proportional to the total peripheral resistance.
Ohm law?Blood flow is measured by taking the difference of the pressure and the vessel resistance. The difference of the pressure-driven the blood flow while on the other hand, the resistance impedes the flow. Ohm law represent the relationship between the flow of the blood resistance and the pressure difference.
(Q=∆P/R)
Here Flow= Q
Pressure difference = ∆P
Resistance = R
Learn more about resistance here: https://brainly.com/question/15047345
Explain how a primary sensory neuron transmits information about the intensity of a stimulus to a secondary sensory neuron at a chemical synapse (i.e. explain temporal summation of postsynaptic potentials).
Answer:Information, in the form of nerve impulses, reaches the spinal cord through sensory neurons of the PNS. These impulses are transmitted to the brain through the interneurons of the spinal cord. ... The spinal cord is thus responsible for mediating all information flow between the body and the brain.
Explanation:
Animals eat other organisms to obtain food. They then break down the food to get energy and rearrange the molecules of their food into new molecules. One of those molecules is carbon dioxide. How is carbon dioxide recycled back into the food chain?
Carbon dioxide is recycled in the food chain through cellular respiration by animals, releasing CO_{2}, and photosynthesis by plants and autotrophs, which fixates CO_{2} into organic molecules like glucose. These organic molecules become food for animals, continuing the carbon cycle.
Carbon dioxide (CO_{2}) is a crucial component of the carbon cycle, which is fundamental to the flow of energy through ecosystems. Animals, including humans, release CO_{2} as a byproduct of cellular respiration, a process where organic molecules are broken down to release energy. Meanwhile, plants, algae, and some bacteria, known as autotrophs, take in CO_{2} from the atmosphere or dissolved forms in water and fixate them into organic molecules like glucose through photosynthesis. These organic molecules are then used to build complex carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids, which serve as food for animals. This cycle repeats as animals consume the organic molecules and, through respiration, return CO_{2} to the atmosphere, making it available for photosynthesis once again. In a sense, the energy and carbon are continuously recycled within the ecosystem.
From this, it is evident that carbon fixation and cellular respiration are two key mechanisms that ensure the transfer and transformation of carbon, allowing it to be a perpetual element of life and energy within the biosphere.
What are the advantages of a partnership?
Answer:
Advantages :
Money is shared by both partners.Profit and loss is also divided.Responsibility is also shared.Ideas are exchange.Explanation:
Mendel studied dominant & recessive traits. Explain how dominant traits behave.
Answer:
dominant traits cancel out a recessive trait, two dominant traits, such as blue eyes from both parents would equal an 100% dominant trait for blue eyes in the offspring
Answer:
A dominant trait is an inherited trait or characteristic that appears in an offspring and covers the effects of another allele and/or prevails or exhibit its trait above another.
Consider a population of 1099 apple fly maggots. In this population, you observe that the allele frequency of the dominant allele at the ADH locus, where are are two alleles, is 0.554. What is the expected number of heterozygotes if this population is at HWE (please give your answer as an integer)?
Answer:
543
Explanation:
Given is the frequency of the dominant allele in the population (p)= 0.554
Since the locus has two alleles and the population is in Hardy Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of the recessive allele (q) of the same locus would be= 1-0.554= 0.446
Frequency of heterozygous genotype in the given population = 2pq= 2 x 0.554 x 0.446= 0.4941
Now, the number of heterozygous genotype in the given population= 0.4941 x 1099= 543.0159 = 543
To calculate the expected number of heterozygotes in a population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, apply the formula 2pq multiplied by the population size. The dominant allele frequency is given as 0.554 for the apple fly maggots, with the frequency of heterozygotes 2 × 0.554 × 0.446 × 1099, rounded to the nearest integer.
Explanation:The student is asking about the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium (HWE), which is a principle in population genetics that provides a mathematical model to study allele frequencies in a population under certain conditions. The given information includes the population size (1099 apple fly maggots) and the allele frequency of the dominant allele (0.554) at the ADH locus. To find the expected number of heterozygotes in a population at HWE, the Hardy-Weinberg equation is used, which states that the frequency of two alleles (p and q, where p + q = 1) within a population can be used to calculate the frequencies of genotypes. The frequency of heterozygotes is 2pq.
Using this information, the expected number of heterozygotes is calculated as follows:
p (frequency of dominant allele A) = 0.554.q (frequency of recessive allele a) = 1 - p = 1 - 0.554 = 0.446.The frequency of heterozygotes (Aa) is 2pq = 2 × 0.554 × 0.446.To find the expected number of heterozygotes, multiply the frequency of heterozygotes by the population size: 2pq × 1099.After performing these calculations, remember to round off the final answer to the nearest whole number, as you cannot have a fraction of an organism.
A student from one of the research labs is having trouble preparing a slide for examination and photographing. The bacterial slide that he has brought to you was prepared using a commercially purchased stain. He has asked for your help in determining what he is doing wrong so that he can change the lab protocols and continue on with his project. After examining the slide under oil immersion, you determine that no bacteria are present even though the student is able to show you the culture he used to make that slide that has visible growth in the liquid medium. Which of the following statements does NOT explain the fact that there are no bacteria present on the student’s slide?
Answer: Rinsing with alcohol during the washing step stripped the bacteria off the glass slide.
Explanation:
The step that is being wrong in the whole experiment is that the student is washing the bacteria on the slide with alcohol.
Alcohol might have washed off all the bacteria as it is corrosive in nature. The bacteria that is going to be observed in the experiment is being killed when it is washed off.
This was the wrong step opted by the student if he finds any alternative solution to this then the bacteria can be observed in the microscope.
Most cells cannot harness heat to perform work because
a. cells do not have much heat; they are relatively cool.
b. heat must remain constant during work.
c. heat is not a form of energy.
d. temperature is usually uniform throughout a cell.
e. heat can never be used to do work.
Answer:
The correct answer is d. temperature is usually uniform throughout a cell.
Explanation:
Cell utilise chemical energy for carrying out its metabolism.The chief form of chemical energy used by cells is ATP or adenosine triphosphate that stores a lot of energy in the phosphate-ester bonds.Chemical energy is also stored in the form of lipid or fatty acids.In the cells release of heat energy is not possible because, other than chemical energy cells stores energy in the form of electrochemical gradient (gradient of specific ions like K⁺ or Na⁺ ), proton gradient, etc, across membranes. This is because cells require a specific temperature, that is, the body temperature, to carry out metabolism at an optimal rate.If heat energy is utilised or released in any chemical process it can cause alteration in body temperature, thereby affecting the process of metabolism.Species are normally subdivided into populations that are more or less scattered, that may be separated at one time, but may merge together again, and successfully reproduce, at a later time. Tattersall and DeSalle describe this process as:_________
a. reticulation
b. speciation
c. phylogenesis
d. ontogenesis
Answer:
Reticulation
Explanation:
Reticulation is a process which explains the origin of many organisms formed by the merging of the two lineages. The species are formed when the species in the evolutionary process got scattered, formed two lineages and then again reproduced and merged.
Studies suggest that the origin of many species in the angiosperm phylum is the result of the process of the reticulation.
Thus, Reticulation is the correct answer.
In continuous reinforcement, an organism is reinforced _____; whereas in partial or intermittent reinforcement, an organism is reinforced _____.
Answer:
In continuous reinforcement, an organism is reinforced every time the desired behavior occurs whereas in partial or intermittent reinforcement, an organism is reinforced sporadically when the desired behavior occurs
Explanation:
Continous Reinforcement :It reinforces the desired response each time it occurs.
Reinforce every single time the animal performs the response.
Use for teaching the animal the contingency.
Partial reinforcement :It reinforces a response only part of the time . Though this results in slower acquisition in the beginning , it shows greater resistance to extinction later on.
Can reinforce ocassionally based on time.
Can reinforce ocassionally based on amount.
Can make it predictable or unpredictable.
What is the study of the relative power and limits of genetic and environmental influences on behavior?
Answer:
Behavioral Genetics
Explanation:
Behavioral genetics or behavior genetics is a field of scientific study that make use of genetic methods to study an individual's behavior. In general, it is the study of the relative power and limits of genetics and environmental influences on behavior.
Studies have shown that one's behavior is greatly linked to one's genetics and environmental exposure.
Sulci are: A. found only in the cerebrum. B. the cracks between the bumps on the brain. C. the bumps on the surface of the brain. D. found only in the cerebellum.
Answer:
B. the cracks between the bumps on the brain.
Explanation:
Sulci also referred to as fissures, are the grooves which appear like cracks that is found in between an elevated ridge-like structure that looks like bumps, which are found on the surface of the cerebral cortex. The sulci that separate the cerebral cortex forming bumps, and making the cerebral cortex to form folds that are seen on the surface of the brain. The sulci by forming these folds help in increasing the surface area of the cerebral cortex that is made up of nerve cells and dendrites.
Need help ASAP.
For biology
(1.)Which question below do scientists need to answer, to determine whether CRISPR can be used to fight a new bacterium that is resistant to antibiotics? (Circle all that apply)
A. Where did the bacterium come from?
B. What sequence of nucleotides does the guide RNA need to include, to kill the bacterium?
C. What proteins do the virus’s guide RNA code for?
(2.) Which of the following system components is likely to be direct (immediate) cause the antibiotic-resistant bacterium’s own DNA to be destroyed?
A. the invasion of the bacteriophage (virus) into the bacterium
B. the action of the Cas-9 protein
C. the production of the Cas-9 protein
D. the coding of the guide RNA
1) What sequence of nucleotides does the guide RNA need to include, to kill the bacterium is the answer.
2). The action of the Cas-9 protein.
Explanation:
CRISPR is a genetic engineering technology used to detect and destroy DNA of the bacteriophage which have infected the bacterial cell previously.
The CRISPR are the sequences of bacteriophage DNA found in genome of the bacteria when bacteriophage has infected it before.
It alters the DNA sequences and modify the function of gene is bacteria.
Cas-9 is an endonuclease which cuts the DNA identified by or complementary to CRISPR.
This system makes bacteria anti viral.
It is an example of acquired immunity.
Why was the Euglena green in color? What is the name of the specialized body structure that is located at the base of the tail?
Euglena is green in color because of the chlorophyll that is contained in the chloroplast of that organism and the body structure that is located at its base is known as flagellum .
Explanation:
Euglena are species that are found in the fresh and salt water. They are abundantly found in inland waters where they manage themselves to bloom in large amount and color the water surface of ditches and ponds green.
This green color which them form are mainly due to the chlorophyll that is contained in the chloroplast of the organism. chlorophyll is known to be the pigment that is responsible for the green color.It is the cause for the green color in this case too.
Euglena contains a specialized body structure which is located at the base of the tail by which it manages to move.
This specialized structure is known as Flagellum.
Answer:
Euglena is green because it contains chloroplasts. The structure located at the base of the tail (the flagellum) is called the photoreceptor. The photoreceptor detects light, while the chloroplasts produces sugars through photosynthesis.
Each ATP molecule contains about 1% of the amount of chemical energy available from the complete oxidation of a single glucose molecule. Cellular respiration produces about 32 ATP from one glucose molecule. What happens to the rest of the energy in glucose?a. It is stored as fat.b. It is converted to heat.c. It is used to make water from hydrogen ions and oxygen.d. It is released as carbon dioxide and watere. It is converted to starch.
Answer:
b. It is converted to heat.
Explanation:
Cellular respiration is the process of energy transformation. During this process, the chemical energy present in the chemical bonds of glucose molecules is first stored in the form of NADH and FAD2. Then the same is used to drive the process of ATP synthesis during oxidative phosphorylation. Each process of energy transformation loses some of the energy in the form of heat to the surroundings. The lost energy can not perform any function. Therefore, part of the energy of glucose is also lost in the form of heat as the process of cellular respiration follows the laws of thermodynamics.
Which of the following organelles is the principal and distinquishing feature of the eukaryotic cell? A. ribosomes B. chloroplast C. mitochondria D. lysosomes E. nucleus
Answer:
E. Nucleus
Explanation:
All living organisms were classified into three major domains viz: Eukarya, Archaea and Bacteria. Eukarya are referred to as EUKARYOTES while the other two domains are collectively referred to as PROKARYOTES.
The major basis of this classification is the presence or absence of a membrane bound NUCLEUS. Eukaryotes are organisms characterized by the possession of a membrane-bound nucleus that houses their genetic material (DNA) while prokaryotes lack a nucleus and hence, their genetic material is found naked in the cytoplasm. Although, prokaryotic cells lack other membrane-bound organnelles like Chloroplast, mitochondria etc. but nucleus is the basis of this classification:
EU meaning TRUE, KARYA meaning NUCLEUS, hence Eukarya means organisms will true nucleus.
Knowledge of measurement techniques and statistics is needed only for exercise physiologists who are going to carry on independent research in the field, not for the average exercise science practitioner.
Answer:statistics is a science that teaches how to effectively generate data ,input our data collected and analyze it. Almost every human collect data at every point in time depending on your field. For an exercise practioner he could collect data on the number of people his practicing with,analyze and make meaningful interpretation of the result,data can be collected on plants etc.
Explanation:The knowledge of statistics is for everyone and not limited for certain discipline the rate of use is what differs.
Diploid somatic cells of elephants have 56 chromosomes. If nondisjunction of one of an elephant's chromosomes occurs in meiosis I, the resulting sperm are expected to have the chromosome complement:
a. 29, 29, 27, 27.
b. 56, 56, 57, 55.
c. 28, 28, 29, 27.
d. 29, 29, 28, 28.
Answer:
a. 29, 29, 27, 27.
Explanation:
Separation of homologous chromosomes to the opposite poles during anaphase-I would have produced the haploid chromosome number of the daughter cells. This means that the parent cell with 56 chromosomes would produce four daughter cells each of which would have 56/2= 28 chromosomes. If one of the chromosome pairs did not segregate during anaphase-I, one daughter cells formed by the end of meiosis-I would have "n+1" chromosomes while the other would have "n-1" chromosomes. This chromosome number is maintained by meiosis-II.
Therefore, nondisjunction at anaphase-I in the parent cell with 56 chromosomes would produce a total of four daughter cells. The two daughter cells would have "n+1= 29" chromosomes and rest two would have "n-1=27" chromosomes.
Final answer:
The correct answer is option a. 29, 29, 27, 27. Nondisjunction in meiosis I results in two gametes with an extra chromosome (29) and two gametes missing one chromosome (27).
Explanation:
A student has asked: "Diploid somatic cells of elephants have 56 chromosomes. If nondisjunction of one of an elephant's chromosomes occurs in meiosis I, the resulting sperm are expected to have the chromosome complement: a. 29, 29, 27, 27. b. 56, 56, 57, 55. c. 28, 28, 29, 27. d. 29, 29, 28, 28."
Diploid cells always contain an even number of chromosomes because there are two copies of each chromosome, one from each parent. For elephants, these somatic cells are diploid (2n), meaning they have 56 chromosomes. When meiosis occurs, which produces haploid (n) gametes, each gamete should have 28 chromosomes under normal conditions.
Nondisjunction in meiosis I means that homologous chromosomes don't separate properly, resulting in gametes with an abnormal number of chromosomes. This leads to two cells with an extra chromosome (29 each) and two cells missing one chromosome (27 each).
Correct answer: a. 29, 29, 27, 27
Incorrect options:
b. 56, 56, 57, 55 - These numbers reflect diploid counts with errors, not gametes.
c. 28, 28, 29, 27 - This doesn't reflect meiosis I nondisjunction.
d. 29, 29, 28, 28 - This reflects a normal division outcome, not nondisjunction in meiosis I.
Therefore, if nondisjunction happens in meiosis I, the gametes will have the chromosome counts 29, 29, 27, 27.
Which statement best describes a forest ecosystem that has not experienced any disturbances or natural disasters in the past 100 years?
Answer:
The given question is incomplete, as there is no options provided, and are not available anywhere. But in general, if a forest ecosystem has not experienced any kind of disturbances or natural disasters in the last 100 years then the various plants and animals species dwelling in that forest are reasonably stable.
Explanation:
A forest ecosystem is usually defined as a distinct ecosystem that is comprised of trees, plants and animals, and micro-organisms, in an area that interacts with the abiotic factors such as water, soil in order to survive.
If a forest ecosystem is not disturbed by any anthropogenic or natural disasters for the past 100 years, then the species living in this ecosystem becomes reasonably very stable. They will be adapting to the environment and habitat becomes permanent. There will not occur much physiological and morphological variation in these species.
What effect would hypotension have on the capillary hydrostatic pressure gradient and net filtration pressure?
Hypotension will cause the interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure to increase and capillary hydrostatic pressure to decrease. The net filtration pressure will be reduced favoring the absorption .
Explanation:
Hypotension refers to reduced blood pressure. Decrease in blood pressure results in reduced filtration pressure on capillary walls. This reduces the filtration of water and solutes into the tissue fluid but will favor the movement of water from tissue to blood. So we can say that net filtration pressure will be reduced.
Hypotension leads to a reduction in capillary hydrostatic pressure and net filtration pressure due to a decrease in the pushing force that drives fluid out of capillaries and into tissues or the Bowman's capsule in kidneys.
Explanation:Hypotension would have a significant effect on the capillary hydrostatic pressure gradient and net filtration pressure. In a patient with a normal blood colloid osmotic pressure (BCOP) but dangerously low blood pressure, the capillary hydrostatic pressure (CHP) would be lower than normal. Recalling that net filtration pressure (NFP) is the difference between the blood hydrostatic pressure and the sum of the capillary hydrostatic pressure and the blood colloid osmotic pressure, it follows that with lower CHP (due to hypotension), there would be a decrease in the CHP compared to the constant BCOP.
Consequently, this would lead to a reduced NFP, thus affecting the filtration and movement of fluid from the capillaries into the interstitial tissue spaces or Bowman's capsule in the kidneys. The lower the blood pressure, the more it can impair renal function and increase the risk of conditions such as shock.
In an ischemic heart, the affected cardiac muscle cells are likely to have an altered ______.
A) Number of Z disc
B) Number of desmosomes
C) Number of slow Ca+2 channels
D) Resting member potential
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Ischemia is the cell and tissue damage which results from the lack of the proper blood supply in the heart. Due to improper blood supply there is a lack of oxygen in the heart.
The damaged tissue is normally being replaced by the scar tissue which is quite different from the normal tissue and its basic structure is also not the same.
The scarred tissue lacks the pumps and channels which is necessary to establish the resting potential.
_____, cells that have not yet encountered their specific antigens, reside in the blood, lymphoid organs, or other lymphatic tissue.
Answer:
Naïve T cells
Explanation:
A naive T cell (Th0 cell) is a T cell that has characterised in bone marrow, and majorly passed through the positive and negative activities of central election in the thymus. Explamples includes the naive kinds of helper T cells (CD4+) and cytotoxic T cells (CD8+).
Naive T cells go through the thymus and into the secondary lymphoid organs. In secondary lymphoid organs, naïve T cells are stimulated by mature dendritic cells. T cell stimulation involves 2 signals: TCR and costimulation. Absence of costimulation during T cell activation produces anergy.
Mature T cells are developed in the thymus and delivered into the bloodstream in low amounts. They are known to be immunologically naïve before it encounters MHC-peptide complexes in which its T-cell receptors (TCR) have high attraction.
What are three of the characteristics of an autosomal recessive trait that are observed in a pedigree analysis?
Answer:
In autosomal recessive trait two alleles of the abnormal gene are required to cause the disease. So if the gene is present in the heterozygous conditions in the offspring the offspring would be disease-free but would be disease carrier.
The characteristic that is seen in the pedigree analysis of autosomal recessive diseases are.
They affect both males and females in equal frequency.
They can skin generation.
When both parents are heterozygous for the disease than one-fourth offspring would be affected.
Unaffected parents can produce affected offspring.
Which best describes the outcome of DNA replication? The new DNA molecule is identical to the original DNA. The new DNA molecule is synthesized from amino acids. The new DNA molecule has a different number of codons. The new DNA molecule is single-stranded.
Answer:
The answer is A (The new DNA molecule is identical to the original DNA.)
Explanation: Just did it on edge 2020
The best statement that describes the outcome of DNA replication is that the new DNA molecule is identical to the original DNA.
What is DNA replication?DNA replication is the process by which new sequence of nucleotides are synthesized from an original DNA template.
In DNA replication, the old strand of DNA is unwind into two single stranded DNA. The single stranded DNA serves as a template for the new DNA strand.
Since the new DNA is synthesized from the old strand of DNA, therefore, the new DNA molecule is identical to the original DNA.
Learn more about DNA replication at: https://brainly.com/question/7523494
Explain how breast-cancer genes are still present in the population, despite cancer-related surgeries and deaths.
Answer:
What are so called breast-cancer genes, are mutations in two genes: BRCA1 (BReast CAncer gene one) and BRCA2 (BReast CAncer gene two), and are also associated with ovaric cancer. According to the question, these genes are present in the popolation despite surgeries and deaths, and asks why. Surgeries does not eliminate the genes, they eliminate the tumors, and people can still reproduce after that. And also, most people already had offspring before they know they have cancer, so they are inheriting the mutations on the genes anyway.
Explanation:
Answer:
Cancer related surgeries have absolutely no way to remove genes.
For example, BRC1 is a gene, inherited from a parent, which has been linked to breast cancer. You start out as one cell which divides again and again making copies of itself and eventually become a baby etc. Whatever genes were present at conception are in all of your cells. A surgery doesn't remove these genes, just the tumor.
As for death, in order for natural selection to take place and thus remove a deleterious gene from the population, those who have the gene have to be affected by it BEFORE they have kids.
Say for example a baby gets a mutation that causes a new disease no one has ever heard of. They die when they're 5 years old. After they die, there are no more copies of this bad gene in the population.
With breast cancer most women are in their 50's when diagnosed. This means they have already had kids and passed on their genes. To top it off all if their kids inherit a gene such as BRC1 from their mom, they they pass it on to their kids before they develop cancer and die (if they even get cancer).
What is the Kinsey Scale?A. A six-point rating system that ranges from exclusively heterosexual to exclusively homosexual orientation.B. An in-depth guide to measure whether a loved one is homosexual or heterosexual.C. An instructional manual explaining acceptable homosexual, heterosexual, and bisexual behavior.D. A religious test which classifies a person's ability to live as a heterosexual.
Answer:
The correct answer is option A. "A six-point rating system that ranges from exclusively heterosexual to exclusively homosexual orientation".
Explanation:
Alfred Charles Kinsey was a scientific who revolutionized the way sexology was seen and founded the Institute for Sex Research at Indiana University. Kinsey developed what is known as the Kinsey Scale, a six-point rating system that ranges from exclusively heterosexual to exclusively homosexual orientation. The first results of applying the Kinsey Scale were published by Kinsey in 1948 on the book "Sexual Behavior in the Human Male".
Final answer:
The Kinsey Scale is a six-point scale created by Alfred Kinsey to categorize human sexual orientation from exclusive homosexuality (0) to exclusive heterosexuality (6), representing sexuality as a continuum rather than a binary choice.
Explanation:
The Kinsey Scale is a six-point rating system developed by sex researcher Alfred Kinsey. It is used to describe a person's sexual orientation, with 0 indicating exclusive homosexuality and 6 indicating exclusive heterosexuality. According to Kinsey's research, most individuals fall somewhere in the middle, around a 3, suggesting a bisexual orientation. The scale represents the idea that human sexuality is a continuum and challenges the notion of a strict dichotomy between being exclusively homosexual or heterosexual.
Kinsey's findings, presented in his 1948 work Sexual Behavior in the Human Male, were groundbreaking because they documented the variability of human sexual behavior and challenged societal norms of his time. The Kinsey Scale remains an influential framework for understanding the complexity and fluidity of human sexual orientation.
Sexual orientation itself can encompass various dimensions of attraction, such as physical, mental, emotional, and sexual attraction to others. It includes categories like heterosexuality, homosexuality, bisexuality, and asexuality, among others. The concept behind the Kinsey Scale and the research of Kinsey acknowledge that sexuality is not binary but exists on a spectrum.
A strand of DNA formed by splicing DNA from 2 different organisms is called ___.
Question 16 options:
recombinant RNA
plasmid DNA
recombinant DNA
restriction enzymes
Answer: recombinant DNA
A strand of DNA formed by splicing DNA from 2 different organisms is called recombinant DNA
Explanation:
Using the techniques of recombinant DNA technology, certain enzymes known as restriction enzymes capable of cleaving double stranded DNA in the plasmid of bacteria genomes (other organisms like eukaryotes can also be used) are used to obtain specific sequences of DNA bearing desirable traits in the both organisms.
Once the two DNA fragments have been obtained, another enzyme known as DNA ligase is used to seal the point of splicing, thereby constructing a single DNA from the two organisms.
This single DNA is known as Recombinant DNA
If an animal was raised in an environment absent stimulation except for vertical bars/stripes, what might you expect the animal’s behavior to be when exposed to a horizontal bar shaped toy?
Answer: The animal would ignore the horizontal bar.
Explanation:
If the animal is kept in an environment where it is not exposed to any stimulus and then the animal is being exposed to the horizontal bar shaped toy.
Then the organism if not exposed prior will not show any effect on the exposure to the animal with toy.
The animal would simply ignore the toy and walk away with paying heed to it. It is incorporated in the behavior of the organism that if it is exposed to something new at later stages it will be ignored.
If an animal is raised in an environment absent of stimulation except for vertical bars/stripes, it may exhibit a preference for vertical stimuli over horizontal stimuli. This is because of habituation, which is a form of non-associative learning where an animal stops responding to a stimulus after repeated exposure without any punishment or reward.
Explanation:If an animal was raised in an environment absent stimulation except for vertical bars/stripes, you might expect the animal's behavior to exhibit a preference for vertical stimuli over horizontal stimuli. This is because the animal has been habituated to vertical bars/stripes and may not recognize or respond to horizontal bar-shaped toys as readily. Habituation is a form of non-associative learning where an animal stops responding to a stimulus after repeated exposure without any punishment or reward.
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