Answer:
The correct answer is- cigarette smoke
Explanation:
Cigarette contains tobacco and tobacco contains 7000 chemical out of which 250 are harmful and 69 are cancer-causing. People who smoke cigarettes are at 15-30 times higher risk of getting lung cancer than a person who does not smoke a cigarette.
So as a middle-aged client has a 30-year history of smoking therefore smoking is most likely had the greatest impact on the development of lung cancer. Therefore the correct answer is cigarette smoke.
Answer: Cigarette smoking
Explanation:
The cigarette smoking is most likely the `reason for the person to suffer from lung cancer.
The smoke of the cigarette is very harmful as it can damage the lungs. The cigarette consists of tobacco which contains many carcinogenic agents in it.
Being exposed to radiation, asbestos and pollution is less harmful as compared to the smoke of the cigarettes.
The client who has a history and is susceptible to the lung cancer should keep a distance from cigarette smoking.
Which of the following best describes how cleaning products like chlorine, hydrogen peroxide, and soap influence the infectious rate of a virus on a surface as discussed in the article?
Group of answer choices
These cleaning products are not effective against reducing viral infections. Only alcohol based produces will cause the viruses to be no longer infectious.
These cleaning products break apart the DNA or RNA of the viruses causing them to no longer be capable of reproducing.
These cleaning products are used to wash way the viral particles from the surface, but do not disrupt the components of the viruses themselves.
These cleaning products break apart the capsules of the viruses causing them to no longer be capable of infecting an individual.
Answer:
These cleaning products break apart the capsules of the viruses causing them to no longer be capable of infecting an individual.
Explanation:
Bleach oxidises organic molecules. This causes proteins to become denatured, or lose their shape. The viral capsule containing the DNA is a coat made up of proteins that is required for the virus to become infectious. Therefore, following bleach treatment, the viral protein capsule become oxidised, cause them to loses their shape, meaning the virus can no longer infect individuals.
Cleaning products like chlorine, hydrogen peroxide, and soap disrupt the capsules of viruses, making them unable to infect. Chlorine and hydrogen peroxide are strong oxidizing agents that damage the protein and lipid structures of the virus, while soap disrupts the fats in the virus shell.
Explanation:Cleaning products like chlorine, hydrogen peroxide, and soap have a significant effect on the infectious rate of a virus on a surface. These cleaning products function by breaking apart the capsules of the viruses, which renders them unable to infect an individual.
For instance, chlorine and hydrogen peroxide are powerful oxidizing agents, which can break the protein and lipid structures that make up the virus's envelope or capsid. When this outer structure is damaged or destroyed, the virus loses its ability to attach to host cells and start an infection.
Soap, on the other hand, disrupts the fats in a virus shell, effectively inactivating the virus by making it incapable of binding to human cells. Therefore, these cleaning products effectively reduce the risk of viral infection by physically destroying viruses present on surfaces.
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In Lewis Carroll's Through the Looking-Glass, the Red Queen tells Alice, "in this place it takes all the running you can do to stay in the same place." How is this statement logically connected with the idea of evolution by natural selection?
A. As individuals evolve to better fit their environment, their environment also changes, subjecting the individuals to continually changing selective pressures.
B. Running in place is an important measure of optimal running speed, which is a strong correlate of survival and reproduction.
C. As populations evolve to become better adapted to their environments, their environments also change, subjecting the populations to continually changing selective pressures.
D. As individuals evolve through natural selection, they tend to develop characteristics that cause them to be less adapted to their environment.
E. As individuals evolve through natural selection, they tend to move to new places that are very similar to the places in which they originally evolved.
Answer:
Option A, As individuals evolve to better fit their environment, their environment also changes, subjecting the individuals to continually changing selective pressures.
Explanation:
By running the author means that an organism has to continuously evolve in order to cope up with the changing environmental conditions and hence survive and be fertile.
As per the theory of natural selection, an individual that is best fit to the prevailing environmental condition is able to survive and reproduce. And in order to be fit, an organism is required to evolve continuously.
Hence, option A is correct
The Red Queen's statement from "Through the Looking-Glass" relates to the Red Queen Hypothesis in evolution, emphasizing the constant adaptation required just to maintain a species' current status amidst changing environmental and competitive pressures, best exemplified in option C.
Explanation:In Lewis Carroll's Through the Looking-Glass, the Red Queen's statement, "in this place it takes all the running you can do to stay in the same place," logically connects with the idea of evolution by natural selection through the concept known as the Red Queen Hypothesis. This hypothesis suggests that organisms are constantly adapting and evolving not merely to gain an advantage, but to maintain their current status relative to the changing environment and the evolving species within it. This includes interactions between competing species, predators and prey, parasites and hosts.
The most accurate connection to this concept is seen in option C: As populations evolve to become better adapted to their environments, their environments also change, subjecting the populations to continually changing selective pressures. This encompasses the idea that adaptation is not only about improvement in a static context but is also about maintaining relative fitness in a constantly evolving ecological landscape.
Therefore, the Red Queen's phrase embodies the perpetual arms race in nature, where species must continuously evolve simply to maintain their place in the ecosystem, facing new challenges and adapting to changes, which may include competitors, predators, or environmental shifts.
Yellow pea color (A) is dominant to green pea color (a). Smooth pea texture (B) is dominant to wrinkled pea texture (b). If parent #1 is homozygous green and heterozygous smooth and parent #2 is homozygous yellow and homozygous wrinkled, what is the probability that the offspring will have yellow, smooth peas? Enter a number 0–100.
Answer:
50%
Explanation:
The genotype of the parent #1 who is homozygous green and heterozygous smooth would be= aaBb and that of the parent #2 who is homozygous yellow and homozygous wrinkled would be=AAbb. A cross between aaBb and AAbb would produce progeny in the following phenotype ratio=
1/2 yellow and smooth: 1/2 yellow and wrinkled.
Therefore, the probability that the offspring will have yellow, smooth peas is 1/2 or 50%
Starting from the wild mustard Brassica oleracea, breeders have created the strains known as Brussels sprouts, broccoli, kale, and cabbage. Therefore, which of the following statements is correct?
A) In this wild mustard, there is enough heritable variation to permit these different varieties.
B) Heritable variation is low in wild mustard—otherwise this wild strain would have different characteristics.
C) Natural selection is rare in wild populations of wild mustard.
D) In wild mustard, most of the variation is due to differences in soil or other aspects of the environment.
Answer:
A) In this wild mustard, there is enough heritable variation to permit these different varieties.
Explanation:
Brussels sprouts, broccoli, kale, and cabbage were developed by breeders by the process of artificial selection of one or other genetic traits. The processes of natural and artificial selection require the presence of genetic variations in the population to act upon. Brassica oleracea had the variations such as overlapping leaves (for cabbage), storage stem (for kohlrabi), large axillary buds (for Brussels), etc. These strains of Brassica with desired genetic traits were selected and bred for several generations to produce the above-mentioned strains.
Among the options given, the correct one is 'In wild mustard, there is sufficient heritable variation to allow for the creation of different varieties such as Brussels sprouts, broccoli, kale, and cabbage.' This is possible due to the high genetic variability in wild mustard, which enables selective breeding.
Explanation:The correct statement amongst the given options is 'A) In this wild mustard, there is enough heritable variation to permit these different varieties.' This is because, through the process of selective breeding, breeders have been able to isolate and enhance certain traits in wild mustard (Brassica oleracea) leading to the creation of different strains like Brussels sprouts, broccoli, kale, and cabbage. This would not be possible if heritable variation was low in this plant. Therefore, this plant must have a high genetic variability which allows breeders to selectively breed for specific traits, leading to the development of these cultivars.
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The initial statement of the ____________ hypothesis proposed that over time a bacterial endosymbiont of an ancestral cell in the eukaryotic lineage lost its ability to live independently.
Answer: Endosymbiotic
Explanation:
The initial statement of the endosymbiont states that over a period of time the bacterial endosymbiont of the ancestral cell in the eukaryotic lineage loss the ability to live independently.
They can either become a chloroplast if the endosymbiont bacteria is photosynthetic or it can become a mitochondria if bacteria uses aerobic respiration.
hence, the correct answer is endosymbiotic.
What tissue has lacunae, calcium salts, and blood vessels? Select one: a. fibrocartilaginous tissue b. areolar tissue c. bone (osseous tissue) d. cartilage tissue
Answer:
c. bone (osseous tissue)
Explanation:
The extracellular matrix of the bone tissue consists of an organic component and an inorganic component.
The organic component includes Collagen , proteoglycans and glycoprotiens, While the inorganic component contains calcium and phopsphorus. The cells are present in the lacunae situated betwen the lamellae and contain a number of oblong spaces.
It also contains blood vessels as a typical long bons is supplied by a nutrient artery , periosteal vessels and epiphyseal arteries.
Hence C is the right answer.
Bone (osseous tissue) has lacunae, calcium salts, and is highly vascularized, distinguishing it from other tissue types like cartilage and areolar tissue.
Explanation:The tissue characterized by having lacunae, calcium salts, and blood vessels is bone (osseous tissue). Bone tissue is a type of connective tissue that has a rigid extracellular matrix with mostly collagen fibers embedded in a mineralized ground substance containing hydroxyapatite—a form of calcium phosphate. This combination contributes to the bone's hardness and its ability to support the body and protect internal organs.
Within this matrix, bone cells, or osteocytes, reside in small cavities known as lacunae. Bone tissue is highly vascularized, meaning it has a good blood supply, which is necessary for nutrient delivery and waste removal. This vascularization also allows bone tissue to recover from injuries more efficiently than non-vascularized tissues like cartilage.
Sexual selection favors individuals with traits that increase their ability to obtain mates, such as mating calls in crickets. Using this example, propose a scenario where sexual selection could contribute to divergence in sympatric speciation.male(s) / female(s) / cool forest floor / warm forest canopyVariation in ________ calls could occur, such as a lower-pitched call at the _______ and a higher-pitched call in the _______. _______ in the _______ could start to prefer _______ with lower-pitched calls, and ________ in the _________ could start to prefer _________ with higher-pitched calls, creating genetic isolation. Over time, genetic divergence could occur between the two populations.
Answer:
variation in male calls could occur, such as a lower-pitched call at the cool forest floor and a higher-pitched call in the warm forest canopy. Females in the forest floor could start to prefer males with lower-pitched calls, and females in the canopy could start to prefer males with higher-pitched calls, creating genetic isolation. Over time, genetic divergence could occur between the two populations.
Explanation:
To complte this exercise, you should fill in the blanks with the correct phrase taken from the options;
male(s) / female(s) / cool forest floor / warm forest canopy
Final answer:
Variation in mating calls related to different ecological niches like the forest floor and canopy could lead to female preference for specific calls, resulting in genetic isolation and sympatric speciation.
Explanation:
Sexual selection favors characteristics that improve an organism's chances of mating and producing offspring. It can lead to divergence in sympatric speciation, even in cases where different populations of the same species share the same geographic area but occupy different ecological niches, such as the cool forest floor and the warm forest canopy. Here is a proposed scenario:
Variations in mating calls could occur, such as a lower-pitched call on the cool forest floor and a higher-pitched call on the warm forest canopy. Females on the cool floor could start to prefer males with lower-pitched calls, and females in the canopy could start to prefer males with higher-pitched calls, creating genetic isolation. Over time, genetic divergence could occur between the two populations, leading to reproductive isolation and potentially the formation of new species.
You are handed a model of a protein. It has a three-dimensional shape, and by twisting it, you can see that there is only one polypeptide chain in the model. You can see two alpha helices lined up next to one another in the model. From this evidence, you are looking at what level of protein structure? Tertiary T/F
Final answer:
True. The protein model described with a three-dimensional shape and two alpha helices represents the tertiary structure of a protein, involving complex 3D folding of a single polypeptide chain.
Explanation:
Based on the description provided by the student, the model of the protein with a single polypeptide chain and two alpha helices represents the tertiary structure of a protein. The tertiary structure is known for the large-scale three-dimensional shape formed from the folding and twisting of the polypeptide. Primary structure is defined by the sequence of amino acids. Secondary structure arises from local folding into common patterns such as alpha helices and beta-pleated sheets. Tertiary structure, on the other hand, involves a complex 3D construction due to the interactions between amino acid residues that are distant in the primary sequence, including hydrogen bonds, hydrophobic interactions, and disulfide bridges. A protein's quaternary structure occurs when multiple polypeptide chains, or subunits, come together to form a complete protein complex, which is not the case here as described by the student.
The lumper potatoes that were grown in Ireland during the 1800s were essentially clones of one another. They all had the same genetic makeup. So, when a potato blight disease began infecting the potatoes, it spread to all potatoes equally. How could greater genetic diversity have lessened the devastation of the potato blight? A. Some potatoes would be more likely to have a genetic resistance to the disease and survive. B. The potatoes would have been able to trade genes so that they could survive the disease. C. More of the potatoes would have been edible varieties. D. None of the potatoes would have been infected by the disease.
Answer:
some potatoes would be more likely to have genetic resistance to the disease and survive.
Greater genetic diversity could have lessened the devastation of the potato blight by allowing some potatoes to have genetic resistance to the disease and survive.
Explanation:Greater genetic diversity could have lessened the devastation of the potato blight in several ways:
A. Some potatoes would be more likely to have a genetic resistance to the disease and survive.B. The potatoes would have been able to trade genes so that they could survive the disease.By having a greater genetic diversity, there would be a higher chance of some potatoes having natural resistance to the disease, and they could pass on their resistance to future generations through gene exchange.
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You are testing 3 new herbicides, A, B, and C, to control itch grass and to compare the effectiveness of the herbicides with a currently used herbicide, Round-Up, and the treatment with just water. Which of the following is considered as a positive control?
Answer:
Round-Up
Explanation:
In one experiment the positive controls are used in order to validate the evaluation of the test, which is done in this case to measure the effectiveness of the herbicides. The researchers previously found that the herbicide Round-up controls the herb and has a high effectiveness , making this positive positive control be compared with the experimental results. In a positive control we have the desired effect in this case the elimination of grass.
Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder. The frequency of homozygotes with this disorder is 0.0001. What percentage of the population is heterozygous?
Answer: The percentage of heterozygous population is 99%
Explanation:
According to the Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium equation, the homozygous recessive individuals are represented by the q^2 term
Thus, q^2 = 0.0001
q = √0.0001 = 0.01 or 1%
Now, to calculate the percentage of heterozygous individuals in the population: subtract percentage of homozygotes from 100%
i.e 100% - 1% = 99%
Therefore, the percentage of heterozygous population is 99%. Also, this means 1 out of 100 people in the population suffer from Phenylketonuria (PKU).
Final answer:
The percentage of the population that is heterozygous for Phenylketonuria (PKU), given a homozygote frequency of 0.0001, is 1.98%. This calculation is based on the Hardy-Weinberg principle.
Explanation:
The student has asked about the percentage of the population that is heterozygous for Phenylketonuria (PKU), given that the frequency of homozygotes with this disorder is 0.0001. To solve for the heterozygous frequency, we can use the Hardy-Weinberg principle. This principle states that p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1, where p and q represent the frequency of the dominant and recessive alleles, respectively. Given that q2 (homozygous recessive) equals 0.0001, we can calculate q as the square root of 0.0001, which is 0.01. Therefore, p (frequency of the dominant allele) equals 1 - 0.01 = 0.99. The frequency of heterozygotes (2pq) is then calculated as 2 * 0.99 * 0.01 = 0.0198 or 1.98% of the population.
This shows that 1.98% of the population is heterozygous for PKU. Such individuals carry one mutant allele for PKU but generally do not exhibit symptoms of the disorder. However, they can pass the allele to their offspring, contributing to the genetic diversity and the occurrence of the disorder in the population.
During pregnancy a woman's blood volume increases to accommodate the growing fetus to the point that vital signs may remain within normal range without showing signs of shock until the woman has lost what percentage of her blood volume?
Answer:
The correct answer is - 40%.
Explanation:
The condition of the shock in an individual occur if she experienced the blood loss 40 % or more of her total blood pressure during pregnancy as she require enough amount of blood for the essential body organs to function.
As the fetus grow the women's blood volume is also increases to accommodate accordingly. This condition leads to blood loss of the mother. The critical limit is 40% of total blood.
Thus, the correct answer is - 40%
Which one of the following is not associated with nitrate exposure in humans?
a. goiter.
b. blue baby syndrome.
c. risk of developing insulin-dependent diabetes.
d. brittle bones.
Answer:
The correct answer is d. brittle bones.
Explanation:
Brittle bone disease is a genetic disorder that causes the bone to become fragile that easily breaks. It is also known as osteogenesis imperfecta which means imperfect bones.
In this disease, a gene that makes type 1 collagen becomes defected. Type 1 collagen is an important protein that is required to make bones. This defective gene mainly comes from parents. So brittle bone disease is not associated with nitrate exposure in humans while goiter, blue baby syndrome, and risk of developing insulin-dependent diabetes are associated.
Final answer:
Brittle bones are not associated with nitrate exposure in humans. Nitrate exposure has been connected with health concerns such as blue baby syndrome and potentially goiter and insulin-dependent diabetes, but not directly with brittle bones.
Explanation:
The answer to which of the following is not associated with nitrate exposure in humans is d. brittle bones. While exposure to nitrates has been linked to a number of health concerns, brittle bones is not commonly associated with nitrate exposure. Exposure to high levels of nitrates is more notably connected with blue baby syndrome (where it interferes with oxygen delivery in infants' bloodstream), and there has been some research suggesting a possible link between nitrates and the development of certain health issues like goiter and insulin-dependent diabetes, although some of these links are subject to ongoing research and debate.
Other conditions associated with environmental factors during prenatal development include lead poisoning, exposure to mercury, and iodine deficiency, which can cause conditions like cretinism and cognitive impairments. In infants, blue baby syndrome is a serious health concern that has been linked to nitrate exposure from drinking water containing nitrate levels exceed the maximum contaminant level (MCL).
The video describes a coevolutionary arms race between the Plasmodium parasite and its human hosts.
True or false? One example of a coevolutionary arms race is when faster deer evolve and favor wolves and cougars that have stronger eyesight and senses of smell.
true
Archaeplastids, which include red and green algae and land plants, are thought to have descended from a heterotrophic protist that engulfed a(n) _____.
One example of a coevolutionary arms race is when faster deer evolve and favor wolves and cougars that have stronger eyesight and senses of smell is a true statement.
Archaeplastids, which include red and green algae and land plants, are thought to have descended from a heterotrophic protist that engulfed a cyanobacterium.
Explanation:
Co-evolution leads to two species influencing the adaptations of each other over time. Co-evolutionary arms race evolves reciprocal adaptation between species are repeated cyclically.
Since the preys like the deer are faster, the predators have to be extra skillful to be better hunters. Hence, the predators like the wolves and cougar need to adapt themselves with better eyesight and sense of smell.
Archeaplastids are supergroups of eukaryotes. As per evolutionary lines, arecheaplastids were created due to endosymbiotic relationship between an eukaryotic cell and a cynabacterium which resulted in eukaryote engulfing the cyanobacterium.
What type of interaction between two chemicals causes one chemical that is not toxic to become more toxic?
Answer:
Potentiating effects
Explanation:
In medical field, Potentiating refers to the enhancement of potency or effect of any drug, chemical or treatment method.
In case of chemicals, potentiating effects are caused when one drug or chemical comes in contact with another drug and chemical and their combined pharmacologic effect is higher than the combined or individual response of each drug. For example – Pharmacologic effect of alcohol and sedative and diazepam potentiate the effect of alcohol.
Which of the following best describes a biodiversity "hotspot"? Question 18 options:
A hotspot is an area near volcanic vents on the ocean floor where the species diversity is high.
A hotspot is an area where the rate of species extinction is high.
A hotspot is a region where species diversity is high but threatened by habitat loss.
A hotspot is a region where large numbers of animals are brought together into an enclosure.
Answer:
Which of the following best describes a biodiversity "hotspot"?
Biodiversity hotspot is a region where large numbers of animals are brought together into an enclosure
Explanation:
When we are talking about biodiversity hotspot, it entails a concentrated region where living organisms are brought together. It is most times an enclosure that encompasses so many living organism
The treelike fibers that receive information and send it toward the neuron's cell body are called ____
Answer:
The treelike fibers that receive information and send it toward the neuron's cell body are called Dendrite
Explanation:
Dendrite:- They are tree like projections generally the extension of nerve cell which helps in the transmission of nerve impulses or electrochemical stimulation from one neuron to another. It is also known as dendrons. For neurons to become active they need some action potential, these action potentials are received in the form of nerve impulses or electrochemical stimulation by dendrite and is been stored in the cell body, or soma, of the neuron. Dendrites are covered by synapses (Structure that permit neural transmission).
Continuous with the outer portion of the nuclear pore, what membrane-bound structure functionsin the synthesis of secretory proteins, integral membrane proteins, or proteins bound for other organelles?
A) rough endoplasmic reticulum
B) lysosome
C) nucleolus
D) mitochondria
E) smooth endoplasmic
Answer:
Option A. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
Explanation:
Rough endoplasmic reticulum functions in the synthesis of secretory proteins, integral membrane proteins, or proteins bound for other organelles. Rough endoplasmic reticulum is named for its rough appearance, which is due to the ribosomes attached to its outer (cytoplasmic) surface. The ribosomes on rough endoplasmic reticulum specialize in the synthesis of proteins that possess a signal sequence that directs them specifically to the endoplasmic reticulum for processing.
an electrical connection between an electrical circuit or equioment and the earth is called? load-ground-neutral
Answer:
the correct answer is Ground
Explanation:
Grounding is the process of immediate discharge of the electrical current directly to the earth with the use of low resistance electrical wire. grounding is used in order to prevent electrical shock in case of failure of the insulation of electrical appliances. it helps to keep prevent the damages caused by sudden change in voltage in electrical appliances. Grounding is also used to prevent electrical lighting in tall buildings by the use of arrestors placed at highest point of buildings.Final answer:
An electrical connection to the earth in a circuit or equipment is known as an earth/ground connection. It ensures safety by providing a low-resistance path to the earth and consists of three main types: the neutral wire grounding, the case grounding via the green earth/ground wire, and an alternative path through an earth spike.
Explanation:
An electrical connection between an electrical circuit or equipment and the earth is called earth/ground. This earth/ground connection provides a low-resistance path directly to the earth, which is vital for safety and circuit functionality. There are typically three types of earth/ground connections in electrical systems:
The first connection is via the neutral wire, which is connected to the earth at the power source and at the user's location, ensuring that the neutral wire remains at zero volts relative to the earth.The second type is the connection to the case of the appliance through the green earth/ground wire, which guarantees that the appliance's case remains at zero volts.The third type supplies an alternative path through the earth for completing the circuit – this could be an additional earth spike at the building's location.The live or hot wire, referred to as "live/hot", provides the voltage and current to operate the appliance, while the neutral wire acts as the return path for the current. A three-prong plug typically represents this three-wire system in a pictorial version, safely bringing electricity to an appliance.
Assuming no crossing over between the gene in question and the centromere, during what phase of meiosis do alleles segregate?
Answer:
During Anaphase stage
Explanation:
Meiosis is the type of cell division employed during gamete formation when each resulting gamete (daughter cell) has their chromosomal number reduced by half. Meiosis occurs in a two step division; Meiosis I and II. Meiosis I involves the separation of homologous chromosomes (similar but non-identical chromosomes received from each parent) while Meiosis II involves separation of sister chromatids (replicated chromosomes).
Alleles are present on the chromosomes which segregate or separate during the anaphase stage. Alleles received from each parent are separated in Anaphase I of meiosis I, which the identical replicated alleles are separated in anaphase of meiosis II.
The phase of meiosis in which the alleles segregate is during ANAPHASE I.
Meiosis is a cell division in which a parent cell divides twice and thus generates four germinal cells having half the genetic material.Meiosis can be divided into two division steps: Meiosis I and Meiosis II.Each one of these stages can in run divided into Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase (in Anaphase I stage alleles segregate to opposite poles) and Telophase.In conclusion, the phase of meiosis in which the alleles segregate is during ANAPHASE I.
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You take a human smooth muscle cell and block the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. What effect does that have on contraction of that smooth muscle cell, and why?
Answer:
Even after block the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum ,the contraction still occurs.
The reason is that the calcium ions (Ca+2) can enter the cell directly through L-type voltage gated Calcium channels in the plasma membrane and bind to calmodulin ,forming calcium-calmodulin complex.
Explanation:
The contraction in smooth muscle is quiet different than that in the skeletal muscle. ( In the smooth muscles , calcium enters from outside as well alongwith the calcium coming from sarcoplasmic reticulum while in skeletal muscles , calcium comes only from the sarcoplasmic reticulum )
In the case of smooth muscle , the L-type voltage-gated calcium channels are located on the plasma membrane of smooth muscle cells. As these channels open , the calcium ions rush inside the smooth muscle cell and bind the calmodulin forming the calcium calmodulin complex. This complex then binds to the myosin light chain kinase enzyme and causes the phosphorylation of the myosin light chains resulting in the contraction.
When the release of the calcium is blocked from the sarcoplasmic reticulum then the contraction of the smooth muscle cells still continues and will not get stopped. Thus, option E is correct.
What are smooth muscle cells?The complete question is: You take a human smooth muscle cell and block the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. What effect does that have on the contraction of that smooth muscle cell, and why?
A. Contraction is completely blocked because calcium binding to troponin is required for contraction.
B. Contraction still occurs because Ca2+ can enter the cell directly through Ca2+ channels in the plasma membrane and bind to troponin.
C. Contraction is completely blocked because calcium binding to calmodulin is required for contraction.
D. Contraction still occurs because the contraction in smooth muscle is completely independent of Ca2+ levels.
E. Contraction still occurs because Ca2+ can enter the cell directly through Ca2+ channels in the plasma membrane and bind to calmodulin.
Smooth muscles are spindle-shaped muscles that have an elongated nucleus and are present in the organs like the liver, intestines, and the pancreas. The calcium ions enter the muscle cells directly through the L-type voltage-gated calcium channels.
The calcium from the outside of the cells enters the smooth muscles and binds with the calmodulin resulting in the calcium calmodulin complex. This further gets binds to the kinase enzyme and initiates the phosphorylation leading to the contraction.
Therefore, option E. the blocking of the calcium does not stop the contraction.
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The food web illustrated above shows plants and animals, but does not indicate bacteria. If bacteria were truly missing from this food web, what is the most likely effect on the community?
Answer: Bacterias are Decomposer and they complete the food web they turn inorganic waste like decay plant and animals into organic material. They help in returning nutrient to the soil for use by autotrophs, and which would now lead to a new food wen.
Explanation:
Three lab groups carried out an experiment to identify the correct molarities for five solutions. Each unknown contained one of the following sucrose concentrations: 0.0 M, 0.2 M, 0.4 M, 0.6 M, 0.8 M, and 1.0 M. Each data entry represents the average of 3 sample replications of 1 cm3 sweet potato cubes expressed as percent change in mass after an overnight (24 hr) soak in the unknown solutions. From the data given, which statement most accurately describes what is occurring in response to a particular unknown solution.
A) Unknown solution E contains the highest concentration of sucrose and the change in mass is due to the active transport of sucrose into the cell in exchange for water molecules.
B) Osmosis of water molecules from unknown solution A likely caused the increase in mass observed.
C) Passive transport of sucrose out of the potato cells explains the change in mass observed for unknown solution F.
D) Unknown solution C represents a sucrose molarity slightly lower than the molarity of sweet potato cells, thus water is transported out of the cells.
Answer:
Osmosis of water molecules from unknown solution A likely caused the increase in mass observed.
Explanation:
Osmosis can be described as a process in which water molecules move from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration along a concentration gradient. So this process does not require energy.
As we observed that there was an increase in the mass of the sweet potato, we can infer that this increase in mass occurred due to osmosis as the concentration of water was more outside the cell as compared to inside of the cell.
The correct statement is B) Osmosis of water molecules from unknown solution A likely caused the increase in mass observed.
Explanation:The correct statement that describes what is occurring in response to a particular unknown solution is B) Osmosis of water molecules from unknown solution A likely caused the increase in mass observed.
Osmosis is the movement of water molecules from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration through a semi-permeable membrane. In this case, the unknown solution A likely had a lower sucrose concentration compared to the sweet potato cells, causing water to move into the cells and resulting in an increase in mass.
This conclusion can be drawn because osmosis occurs when there is a difference in solute concentrations on either side of a semi-permeable membrane, and water moves to equalize the concentration.
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From a throat culture, you have isolated gram-positive cocci that you cannot identify as staphylococci or streptococci. A test for one enzyme can be used to distinguish between these bacteria quickly. What is that enzyme?
Answer:
Catalase
Explanation:
Catalase test is used to detect the presence of enzyme catalase.
Catalase is an enzyme that is formed by microorganism that lives in oxygen saturated environments so that there will be the break down of any toxic that comes with oxygen and hydrogen peroxide. This enzymes helps to differentiate catalase producing enzymes like staphylococci from bacteria that produce non-catalase like streptococci
A recent commercial advertised for a wristband that claimed to restore health and balance by taking advantage of natural frequencies of your biofield. It supports its claim by showing several people first struggling to balance without the wristband and then balancing fine with the wristband. Why should you be skeptical of the claims made in this ad?
Answer:
The answer is - It was not a controlled experiment
Explanation:
A control experiment can be defined as that in which the all variable is kept constant and intact and then used as a standard of comparison or measurement to the experimental component.The commercial showing several people initially struggling to balance without the wristband and then balancing fine with the wrist band is not a controlled experiment.
Claims made in the ad promoting a wristband for health and balance should be questioned as they are not based on controlled scientific research or recognized scientific principles. The experiment shown in the ad does not include a control group, and the principles referenced are often associated with pseudoscience.
Explanation:You should be skeptical of the claims made in this advertisement as they lack important factors that contribute to scientific credibility, such as controlled variables and peer-reviewed research. The concept mentioned, 'natural frequencies of your biofield,' is not grounded in science and typically used by companies selling pseudoscientific products. Claims of health improvement and balance enhancement should be supported by rigorous scientific research, with results published in established peer-reviewed journals. Moreover, the ad performs an experiment that doesn't compare the wristband's affects with a control group, thus it's hard to tell if the improvements in balance are due to the product or perhaps a placebo effect.
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Pls hep me i don't understand!!!!!!
In the image below, does Group A or Group B have a stronger gravitational force between the objects in the group? Give one supporting detail for your answer. Two sets of circles. In Group A, the distance between the two objects is 5 m. In Group B, the distance between the two objects is 10 m.
Answer:
Group A.
Explanation:
The bigger 2 objects are, the more gravitation they exert upon each other. However, since size is unknown, you can assume that group A has stronger gravitation, since 2 equal-size objects put closer together have a stronger pull than 2 objects placed far apart.
Think about the earth orbiting the sun. It's in a good zone of not flying into the sun and also not flying away. If it got substantially closer, it would eventually just run straight into the sun.
While conducting experiments with E. coli, Meselson and Stahl established that during DNA replication, each of the two strands that
compose the double helix were used as a template for the new strands of DNA. The scientists described the replication method as
semi-conservative. Explain what this means in terms of DNA replication
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Base pairing would result in two double-stranded DNA molecules that would include one parental or old strand and one daughter or new strand.
The term 'semi-conservative' in DNA replication refers to the creation of new DNA molecules having one original strand and one new strand, hence conserving half of the original DNA molecule.
Explanation:Meselson and Stahl's experiments with E. coli established the semi-conservative model of DNA replication. According to this model, each of the two strands in the DNA double helix acts as a template for a new strand. After replication, each DNA molecule consists of one original (or parent) strand and one newly synthesized strand. This process ensures that the new molecules are identical copies of the original DNA molecule. The term 'semi-conservative' is used because half of the original DNA molecule is conserved in every new DNA molecule.
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A client with chronic open-angle glaucoma is now presenting with eye pain and intraocular pressure of 50 mm Hg. An immediate iridotomy is scheduled. Which of the following describes the desired effects of this procedure?
asked Oct 13, 2016 in Nursing by Federico
A) Reverse optic nerve damage
B) Restore vision
C) Improve outflow drainage
D) To relieve pain
Answer:
The correct answer is - option C.
Explanation:
Iridotomy is a procedure which is used to treat condition like narrow angle glaucoma and chronic open angle glaucoma, angle closure glaucoma and other chronic glaucoma conditions. In many cases iridotomy is needed to be performed immediately.
Iridotomy procedure in this case is helpful as it is improve the outflow of the drainage which is causing the intraocular pressure which is 50 mm in this case and also will help in reducing the pain.
Thus, the correct answer is - option C.
The statement "the ability to acquire and use knowledge, solve problems and reason in the abstract, and adapt to new situations in the environment" most closely relates to a description of:
A) learning style.
B) intelligence.
C) achievement.
D) field dependence/independence.
Final answer:
The described ability to adapt and reason abstractly is most closely related to intelligence, particularly fluid intelligence, which involves problem-solving and recognizing complex relationships.
Explanation:
The statement "the ability to acquire and use knowledge, solve problems and reason in the abstract, and adapt to new situations in the environment" most closely relates to a description of intelligence. Intelligence includes the capacity for logic, understanding, self-awareness, learning, emotional knowledge, reasoning, planning, creativity, critical thinking, and problem-solving. It is often associated with successful educational, occupational, economic, and social outcomes, and is more than just learning style, achievement, or field dependence/independence. Fluid intelligence, specifically, is characterized by the ability to see complex relationships and solve problems, rather than merely recalling information or creating new products.
A bacterium was grown in two test tubes filled with media rich in glucose. One tube was sealed to produce anaerobic conditions, and the other was not. A third uninoculated, unsealed tube was used as a control. Glucose utilization by this bacterium causes acid production, which is indicated by a lightening of the media color. If the bacterium is able to produce ATP only by aerobic respiration, we expect lightening of media in ________.a. lightening of media in the sealed tube only b. lightening of media in the unsealed tube only c. lightening of media in the sealed and unsealed tubes only d. lightening of media in the control tube only
Answer:
The correct answer is: b. lightening of media in the unsealed tube only.
Explanation:
According to the question, the bacteria can undergo only aerobic respiration, that is it can produce its energy, that is, ATP, or adenosine triphosphate, only in the presence of oxygen.The unsealed tube allowed air or oxygen to pass into it which can be used by the bacteria for its respiration. In the process, it will produce acid that will cause the media colour to lighten.The sealed tube do not allow any oxygen to pass into it. As the given bacteria can undergo only aerobic respiration but not anaerobic respiration, in absence of oxygen it will not be able to undergo respiration and produce energy and acid. Hence, the media colour will remain unchanged.The control tube is used to check the sterility of the media.Final answer:
Lightening of media due to glucose utilization by aerobic respiration is expected in the unsealed test tube only, which allows for the presence of oxygen necessary for the bacterium that relies strictly on aerobic processes. (option b)
Explanation:
If the bacterium is able to produce ATP only by aerobic respiration, then we would expect lightening of the media, which indicates acid production due to glucose utilization, only in the unsealed test tube where oxygen is available.
Oxygen is a requirement for aerobic respiration, and in the sealed test tube, anaerobic conditions are present, which would not support the growth of a bacterium that relies strictly on aerobic processes. Therefore, the correct answer is that we expect lightening of media in the unsealed tube only.